I think we cannot totally see Jesus as He really is but we are told we will see Him as He really is one day. It says, when He appears, we will be like Him because we will see Him as He is.
I mean, does anyone else pray by saying, God, thus and thus?
Three points....
1) Who is “we” in your statement above?
2) Do all who become Christ’s disciples fall under the classification of “saints” (elect) who are addressed in these scriptures. (Hebrews 3:1) Not all who came to Christ had “the heavenly calling”. (1 Corinthians 1:2) The Christian scriptures were written by the elect, for the elect. They are the ones who will rule with Christ in heaven, (the 144,000 pictured in heaven with the Lamb) and they alone will “see God” and they will also see Christ in his heavenly role......but the majority will be among the “great multitude” who are pictured in Revelation 7:13-14 as survivors of the “great tribulation”. These will be their subjects, joined later by the resurrected dead, whom Jesus will call from their graves after the establishment of his Kingdom over redeemed mankind. (John 5:28-29)
In what is called “the Beatitudes”, (Matthew 5:3-11) Jesus clearly identifies two classes of his disciples....there are ones who will “see God” because they will experience a spiritual resurrection (Revelation 20:6).....and there are those who will “inherit the earth”. One group will be in heaven, and the other on earth. “We” then takes on a new meaning.
3) Who are we to pray to? Not once are we told to pray “to” Jesus, but rather “through” him to his Father, whom he called “Our Father” which included himself and his disciples.
If God is the “Father” of all of us (including Jesus) then the Son cannot be his own Father.
Jesus is also the appointed “mediator between God and men” (1 Timothy 2:5-6) meaning that he is the ‘bridge’, or the ‘go between’ appointed by the Father so that our prayers can still reach him. Sin is the barrier between fallen humanity and God, that Jesus bridges.....so if he was God, why do we not have a mediator between us and him?
If we look at the Jewish Scriptures we will see prayers directed to Yahweh (Jehovah in English) by name. (Psalm 3:1-8; Jeremiah 1:6; 2 Chronicles 1:9; Deuteronomy 3:23)
In the Lord’s Prayer, Jesus said as a first requirement that his Father’s name be “hallowed” (holy, treated with reverence). The Jews failed to honour God’s holy name by refraining to use it in their speech, although retaining it in their scripture texts. Exodus 3:13-15 shows that God’s name was to be retained in their address to him. If they had retained it, the trinity could never have been introduced. There would not have been the ambiguous “Lord” who later morphed Jesus into God.
So it stands to reason that Jesus also taught his disciples to address the Father, using his name as the pre-Christian servants of God had done. They saw and read it in the Hebrew scrolls available in their synagogues. They also saw and read it in the Septuagint—a Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures, which was used in teaching in the first century.
These things cannot be overlooked or ignored.