This is a question for any Reformationists who have read this book by the Reformationist, Martin Chemnitz, 1522-1586
Of course, this means that Jesus was fully God and fully man. My question for you (that I do not have the answer for as I've not read the book) is in what way did he describe the second nature of Christ that is human manifest? Did he mean it was a "carnal" nature of the flesh? Or did he mean it was not a carnal nature, but a divine nature with divine power as is our born again nature? 1 John 3:9
Thanks. Did he supply scriptural evidence?
Of course, this means that Jesus was fully God and fully man. My question for you (that I do not have the answer for as I've not read the book) is in what way did he describe the second nature of Christ that is human manifest? Did he mean it was a "carnal" nature of the flesh? Or did he mean it was not a carnal nature, but a divine nature with divine power as is our born again nature? 1 John 3:9
Thanks. Did he supply scriptural evidence?
