Two Ways of thinking about OSAS

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OzSpen

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justaname said:
Stan if your interpretation holds true for 1 Peter 1:2, "The first indicates why God set these elect apart. It was based on his foreknowledge of who they would be in Christ.", how does this apply to Peter's statement in Acts? "this Man, delivered over by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross by the hands of godless men and put Him to death."

Also the correlation between 1 Peter 1:2 and 1 Peter 1:20 is the context. One word is a noun, the other is a participle, so the usage of the words have much more in common than you want to cut short.
justaname,

1 Peter 1:1-2 (ESV) states,
Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, To those who are elect exiles of the dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, 2 according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in the sanctification of the Spirit, for obedience to Jesus Christ and for sprinkling with his blood:
How does this apply to Acts 2:23 (ESV), 'this Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men'?

If what you are saying is correct, there was no need for Acts 2:23 (ESV) to include 'foreknowledge of God' if foreknowledge means predetermined plan because it would be the equivalent of a stutter, 'according to the predetermined plan and the predetermined plan of God. I see no problem with the Acts 2:23 verse affirming both the definite/predetermined plan of God and this being understood in terms of God's attribute of foreknowledge.

The correlation between 1 Pet 1:2 and 1 Pet 1:20 is not affected by one being a noun and the other a participle, just as 'I have knowledge' and 'I have known' are essentially conveying the same truth.

Why can't you allow God's wonderful attribute of foreknowledge (knowing in advance) be allowed to function as a noun or participle and mean foreknowledge, without forcing your meaning of predetermined plan on it?

Oz
 

justaname

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OzSpen said:
justaname,

1 Peter 1:1-2 (ESV) states,

How does this apply to Acts 2:23 (ESV), 'this Jesus, delivered up according to the definite plan and foreknowledge of God, you crucified and killed by the hands of lawless men'?

If what you are saying is correct, there was no need for Acts 2:23 (ESV) to include 'foreknowledge of God' if foreknowledge means predetermined plan because it would be the equivalent of a stutter, 'according to the predetermined plan and the predetermined plan of God. I see no problem with the Acts 2:23 verse affirming both the definite/predetermined plan of God and this being understood in terms of God's attribute of foreknowledge.

The correlation between 1 Pet 1:2 and 1 Pet 1:20 is not affected by one being a noun and the other a participle, just as 'I have knowledge' and 'I have known' are essentially conveying the same truth.

Why can't you allow God's wonderful attribute of foreknowledge (knowing in advance) be allowed to function as a noun or participle and mean foreknowledge, without forcing your meaning of predetermined plan on it?

Oz
Oz,

The Acts passage flows rather nicely with foreordination...it also allows for the emphasis the text is conveying.

Predetermined plan and foreordination of God...this speaks of both a plan including the individuals involved (i.e. Jesus, the apostles, Etc.). Would you say Jesus did not select the 12? Would you say God did not send Jesus? How about the authorities, were they not appointed by God?

It is not that I am forcing any meaning into any word rather recognizing the depth of meaning already present in the context. Again nobody denies God's omniscient attribute when recognizing foreordination.

God's sovereign hand accompanied with man's culpability is written throughout the Scripture. Here God speaks of election and clearly points it is because of God's personal sovereign choice. Not because of any decision these individuals would make rather because of Him who calls.

though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad-in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls- - Romans 9:11

Why not recognize what God plainly says? And then to solidify his point Paul strengthens his case:

14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means!
15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion."
16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. - Romans 9:14-16

Anticipating the argument that would be raised Paul quells it with plain Scripture.

My question then, is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will?
 

justaname

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StanJ said:
Then they are different, despite your willingness to try to minimize them. I'm not quite sure how for knowledge can be a noun but in any event the point is that they are different words and that they can have a different connotations in different settings based on the context of that setting. One really doesn't need to be a Greek scholar to understand this.


No that is not what Peter conveyed, he conveyed exactly what the Bible depicts, as I explained in post 35. The parlance that Peter used in Acts 4 was much better understood by the people of that day than apparently some today. It's also important to note that this was after the baptism of the Holy Spirit so we can quite rightly assume that the Holy Spirit was giving power to his words. The same thing must be a reality today. If the Holy Spirit doesn't bring alive what the word of God says, then the simple human mind will gravitate to whatever it thinks is right. That's human predisposition sadly is always at play in these type of issues. I am much more willing to take the English at face value than I am too get lost in the rhetoric and innuendo regarding the Greek. I for one trust modern biblical translators to get it right.



Again foreknowledge is what it is. I never said election was based on foreknowledge I said God foreknows who will be the elect. That is not quite the same thing but from your perspective, given your bias, you perceive salvation to be elected salvation where as the Bible explains election or the elected to be the saved. I trust you see the difference?


Then you would be wrong because for knowledge does not imply any type of coersion. God draws men to Jesus as Jesus plainly said if he was lifted up he would draw all men to himself. So as both of the things that Jesus said are true then it is up to you to reconcile them, put them together and see what they actually say. It does not convey any predetermination of who will be saved or who will be drawn or who will not be drawn. That is within the human being and not determined by God's decision of who he will or won't draw.
As you should well know given your testimony about your educational qualifications, the Bible does not contradict itself and cherry-picking individual verses does not convey what the New Testament says overall about this or any other issue.
Yes Stan the Bible does not contradict itself.

No one seeks God, no not one. Men are dead in their sins and transgression. None can come to me unless it is given them by my Father.

14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means!
15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion."
16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. - Romans 9:14-16

The same question for you as Oz, is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will?


Then a different issue:

Your quote"The first indicates why God set these elect apart. It was based on his foreknowledge of who they would be in Christ."

You are stating election is based on foreknowledge.
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
Oz,

The Acts passage flows rather nicely with foreordination...it also allows for the emphasis the text is conveying.

Predetermined plan and foreordination of God...this speaks of both a plan including the individuals involved (i.e. Jesus, the apostles, Etc.). Would you say Jesus did not select the 12? Would you say God did not send Jesus? How about the authorities, were they not appointed by God?

It is not that I am forcing any meaning into any word rather recognizing the depth of meaning already present in the context. Again nobody denies God's omniscient attribute when recognizing foreordination.

God's sovereign hand accompanied with man's culpability is written throughout the Scripture. Here God speaks of election and clearly points it is because of God's personal sovereign choice. Not because of any decision these individuals would make rather because of Him who calls.

though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad-in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls- - Romans 9:11

Why not recognize what God plainly says? And then to solidify his point Paul strengthens his case:

14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means!
15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion."
16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. - Romans 9:14-16

Anticipating the argument that would be raised Paul quells it with plain Scripture.

My question then, is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will?
justaname,

I do not know what motivates you to do this. You did not address the issues I raised. I effectively wasted my time examining what I did in #41.

You have dished up a red herring logical fallacy. We cannot have a logical discussion when you refuse to deal with the issues I raise. If you continue with this kind of response again, I will not reply.

Oz
 

justaname

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OzSpen said:
justaname,

I do not know what motivates you to do this. You did not address the issues I raised. I effectively wasted my time examining what I did in #41.

You have have given me a red herring logical fallacy. We cannot have a logical discussion when you refuse to deal with the issues I raise. If you continue with this kind of response again, I will not reply.

Oz
Oz,

I am uncertain where I left any issue unaddressed. Please help me in my oversight.
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
Yes Stan the Bible does not contradict itself.

No one seeks God, no not one. Men are dead in their sins and transgression. None can come to me unless it is given them by my Father.

14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means!
15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion."
16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. - Romans 9:14-16

The same question for you as Oz, is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will?
justaname,

I find that to be terrible contextual exegesis. Read the verses that precede Rom 9:14-16, i.e. Rom 9:1-3, 4-5, 6-13 and you'll find that Rom 9:14-16 is not referring to Christians but to Israel. That is especially obvious in the verses you quoted, esp. Rom 9:15, 'For he says to Moses....' We know this section is dealing with Israel because of Rom 9:17, 'For the Scripture says to Pharaoh'.

You ask, 'is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will'? To answer that issue, I support Titus 2:11 (ESV), 'For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people' and Acts 16:30-31 (ESV), 'Then he brought them out and said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” 31 And they said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household"'.

Oz
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
Oz,

I am uncertain where I left any issue unaddressed. Please help me in my oversight.
What were the specifics I addressed in #41? What were the specifics of your reply to me in #42? You avoided my specifics from #41. This happens over and over on this forum and you are not the only one who engages in the use of red herring logical fallacies. But you did it in #42.

Oz
 

justaname

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OzSpen said:
What were the specifics I addressed in #41? What were the specifics of your reply to me in #42? You avoided my specifics from #41. This happens over and over on this forum and you are not the only one who engages in the use of red herring logical fallacies. But you did it in #42.

Oz
Perhaps the only bit I missed was where you asked how the 1 Peter bit applies to the Acts bit.

I am not attempting to apply the verses rather compare the usage of the word translated foreknowledge.
 

justaname

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OzSpen said:
justaname,

I find that to be terrible contextual exegesis. Read the verses that precede Rom 9:14-16, i.e. Rom 9:1-3, 4-5, 6-13 and you'll find that Rom 9:14-16 is not referring to Christians but to Israel. That is especially obvious in the verses you quoted, esp. Rom 9:15, 'For he says to Moses....' We know this section is dealing with Israel because of Rom 9:17, 'For the Scripture says to Pharaoh'.

You ask, 'is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will'? To answer that issue, I support Titus 2:11 (ESV), 'For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people' and Acts 16:30-31 (ESV), 'Then he brought them out and said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” 31 And they said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household"'.

Oz
Yes but Paul continues to apply his argument to Christians:

22 What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction,
23 in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory-
24 even us whom he has called, not from the Jews only but also from the Gentiles? - Romans 9:22-24

Then you did not answer my question directly. Is believing Jesus as the Christ, the Son of God an act of the will?
 

H. Richard

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Angelina said:
...I don't agree with your statement. When we first got saved, we were forgiven of sin and washed with Christ's blood due to the fall because All men had sinned, even those who did not follow the law. We must now live according to Christ as new creations.

Those who do not believe in OSAS do not think that they can save themselves by not sinning in the flesh. On the contrary, they are already saved. The difference is that they will repent of sin and ask for forgiveness when/if they find themselves being tempted and/or overcome by it. 1 John 2:1. Those who believe in OSAS do not think that the sins they commit need to be repented of nor do they believe they need to ask God for forgiveness because they rely Christ's redeeming work on the cross. Yet they forget that they are under a new covenant which requires both parties to participate. :huh:
very confusing. If they are already saved then they have salvation. What I get by your statements is that those that are already saved must now repent every time they feel they have sinned or they are not saved. Therefore they are not saved unless they repent and that means the person's salvation depends on a person's constant ritual of repentance to get salvation re-instated.

The salvation gospel given to Paul says we are saved by God's grace through the shed blood of Jesus that has already paid the price for the sins of mankind. Those sins that you speak of have already been forgiven and a person has been set free of their sinful flesh and spiritual death.

Ps 23:3-5
3 He restores my soul; He leads me in the paths of righteousness For His name's sake.
4 Yea, though I walk through the valley of the shadow of death, [( *** =The Law of Moses)] I will fear no evil; For You are with me; Your rod and Your staff, they comfort me.
5 You prepare a table before me in the presence of my enemies; You anoint my head with oil; My cup runs over.
NKJV

Most religious people think the shadow of death is death of the flesh but I know it is the Law of Moses that condemns all men in sinful flesh.
 

StanJ

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justaname said:
Yes Stan the Bible does not contradict itself.
No one seeks God, no not one. Men are dead in their sins and transgression. None can come to me unless it is given them by my Father.
The same question for you as Oz, is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will?
Then a different issue:
Your quote"The first indicates why God set these elect apart. It was based on his foreknowledge of who they would be in Christ."
You are stating election is based on foreknowledge.
So now that you admit that the Bible doesn't contradict itself, take a look at the verses in question and if they don't contradict themselves then they must be trying to tell you something you are failing to see? If Romans 3:11 is not contradicting what Jesus said in Matthew 7:7 then what is it telling us? Do you put more importance on Paul's words than Jesus' words? If the Bible does not contradict itself and both Paul and Jesus are right then you must be wrong because you just said that no one seeks God. You'll never be able to defend your position using all of scripture because it is indefensible. You may be able to cherry-pick scriptures and try to bend them to suit a particular purpose but using purely hermeneutical exegesis, it will never happen.
You're deflecting again and for a moderator who keeps telling us to stay on topic you sure seem to stray off topic a lot? Do you actually know what it means when the Bible says that men are dead in their sins and transgressions. http://www.bible.ca/ef/expository-ephesians-2-1-5.htm
I did not say that election is based on God's foreknowledge and for you to say that means you either didn't understand what I said or you deliberately misstated it to suit your purpose? In fact I doubled down when I said that to you, and came right back with this deliberate and erroneous assertion. I suggest you go back and read what I wrote.
 

StanJ

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justaname said:
Perhaps the only bit I missed was where you asked how the 1 Peter bit applies to the Acts bit. I am not attempting to apply the verses rather compare the usage of the word translated foreknowledge.
Not from my point of view based on the answers you responded to me with.
 

justaname

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StanJ said:
So now that you admit that the Bible doesn't contradict itself, take a look at the verses in question and if they don't contradict themselves then they must be trying to tell you something you are failing to see? If Romans 3:11 is not contradicting what Jesus said in Matthew 7:7 then what is it telling us? Do you put more importance on Paul's words than Jesus' words? If the Bible does not contradict itself and both Paul and Jesus are right then you must be wrong because you just said that no one seeks God. You'll never be able to defend your position using all of scripture because it is indefensible. You may be able to cherry-pick scriptures and try to bend them to suit a particular purpose but using purely hermeneutical exegesis, it will never happen.
You're deflecting again and for a moderator who keeps telling us to stay on topic you sure seem to stray off topic a lot? Do you actually know what it means when the Bible says that men are dead in their sins and transgressions. http://www.bible.ca/ef/expository-ephesians-2-1-5.htm
I did not say that election is based on God's foreknowledge and for you to say that means you either didn't understand what I said or you deliberately misstated it to suit your purpose? In fact I doubled down when I said that to you, and came right back with this deliberate and erroneous assertion. I suggest you go back and read what I wrote.
In Matthew 7:7 Jesus is referring to prayer. Romans 3:11 Paul is referring to the unregenerate. Matthew 7:7 is telling us those who are God's pray to Him and through persistence they receive what they ask for; Romans 3:11 is telling us the unregenerate do not even seek Him and are shut up under sin. Thus those who pray to God have been sought by God first.

I do not place any portion of Scripture above another. You again present a false dichotomy. Paul, Jesus, and I all agree. Rather than indefensible my position is biblical. My hermeneutics are just fine and I do not "cherry pick". I give the full context with supporting Scripture. You have presented nothing but opinion, and now you have moved to attack my character, which is typical of every discussion we have when you have nothing constructive to add. I have never deflected nor strayed off topic. I know exactly what the Bible means referring to dead in their sins and transgressions.

Your quote"The first indicates why God set these elect apart. It was based on his foreknowledge of who they would be in Christ."

Why did God set these elect apart according to StanJ? It was based on God's foreknowledge of who they would be in Christ.

Rather simple here. Election is based on God's foreknowledge. :mellow:

Your quote: I never said election was based on foreknowledge I said God foreknows who will be the elect.
Perhaps you think you conveyed this. Perhaps you intended to convey this. This is not what was conveyed.

Now please explain your nuance you are differentiating because your language is getting rather smokey now. :popcorn:

Then you did not answer my question. Is believing Jesus as the Christ, the Son of God an act of the will?
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
Perhaps the only bit I missed was where you asked how the 1 Peter bit applies to the Acts bit.

I am not attempting to apply the verses rather compare the usage of the word translated foreknowledge.


In #42 you did not deal with the issue I had raised in #41 concerning Acts 2:23. But you were off an running with your own agenda from Rom 9.

As for 1 Peter 1:1-2 and 1 Peter 1:20 you did not deal with them at all in #42.

So you dished up to me a red herring fallacy. We cannot have a rational conversation when you engage in this kind of fallacious reasoning.

Oz
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
Yes but Paul continues to apply his argument to Christians:

22 What if God, desiring to show his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction,
23 in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy, which he has prepared beforehand for glory-
24 even us whom he has called, not from the Jews only but also from the Gentiles? - Romans 9:22-24

Then you did not answer my question directly. Is believing Jesus as the Christ, the Son of God an act of the will?
Here you go again with another red herring. In this reply, you did not address what I wrote in #46, with the evidence I provided to demonstrate the context of Rom 9:14-16 deals with Israel, both before and after those verses.

But justaname doesn't want to deal with this context for Rom 9:14-16 that I have stated clearly, so you deflect to what you want to talk about.

As for believing Jesus was the Son of God as an act of the will, I most definitely answered it this way:
You ask, 'is believing Jesus is the Christ the Son of God an act of the will'? To answer that issue, I support Titus 2:11 (ESV), 'For the grace of God has appeared, bringing salvation for all people' and Acts 16:30-31 (ESV), 'Then he brought them out and said, “Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” 31 And they said, “Believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved, you and your household"'.
It seems I assumed too much.

I thought you were capable of understanding Titus 2:11 (ESV) that shows God's grace has appeared [in Jesus] bringing salvation for all people [i.e. freeing the will] and in Acts 16:30-31 (ESV) the Philippian jailer was told '[you] believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved'.

See my article, How to interpret ‘appeared’ in Titus 2:11

Oz
 

OzSpen

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H. Richard said:
very confusing. If they are already saved then they have salvation. What I get by your statements is that those that are already saved must now repent every time they feel they have sinned or they are not saved. Therefore they are not saved unless they repent and that means the person's salvation depends on a person's constant ritual of repentance to get salvation re-instated.

The salvation gospel given to Paul says we are saved by God's grace through the shed blood of Jesus that has already paid the price for the sins of mankind. Those sins that you speak of have already been forgiven and a person has been set free of their sinful flesh and spiritual death.

Ps 23:3-5
3 He restores my soul; He leads me in the paths of righteousness For His name's sake.
4 Yea, though I walk through the valley of the shadow of death, [( *** =The Law of Moses)] I will fear no evil; For You are with me; Your rod and Your staff, they comfort me.
5 You prepare a table before me in the presence of my enemies; You anoint my head with oil; My cup runs over.
NKJV

Most religious people think the shadow of death is death of the flesh but I know it is the Law of Moses that condemns all men in sinful flesh.
Richard,

I find your comment somewhat confusing as well. After people become Christians and commit sins, do they need to confess those sins to God, repent and seek His forgiveness? Or is there no need to do this?

Oz
 

justaname

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OzSpen said:
In #42 you did not deal with the issue I had raised in #41 concerning Acts 2:23. But you were off an running with your own agenda from Rom 9.
The Acts passage flows rather nicely with foreordination...it also allows for the emphasis the text is conveying.

Predetermined plan and foreordination of God...this speaks of both a plan including the individuals involved (i.e. Jesus, the apostles, Etc.). Would you say Jesus did not select the 12? Would you say God did not send Jesus? How about the authorities, were they not appointed by God?

OzSpen said:
As for 1 Peter 1:1-2 and 1 Peter 1:20 you did not deal with them at all in #42.
It is not that I am forcing any meaning into any word rather recognizing the depth of meaning already present in the context. Again nobody denies God's omniscient attribute when recognizing foreordination.

God's sovereign hand accompanied with man's culpability is written throughout the Scripture. Here God speaks of election and clearly points it is because of God's personal sovereign choice. Not because of any decision these individuals would make rather because of Him who calls.

though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad-in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls- - Romans 9:11

Why not recognize what God plainly says? And then to solidify his point Paul strengthens his case:

14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means!
15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion."
16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. - Romans 9:14-16

OzSpen said:
So you dished up to me a red herring fallacy. We cannot have a rational conversation when you engage in this kind of fallacious reasoning.

Oz
Perhaps you do not like my answers.
 

OzSpen

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justaname said:
The Acts passage flows rather nicely with foreordination...it also allows for the emphasis the text is conveying.

Predetermined plan and foreordination of God...this speaks of both a plan including the individuals involved (i.e. Jesus, the apostles, Etc.). Would you say Jesus did not select the 12? Would you say God did not send Jesus? How about the authorities, were they not appointed by God?


It is not that I am forcing any meaning into any word rather recognizing the depth of meaning already present in the context. Again nobody denies God's omniscient attribute when recognizing foreordination.

God's sovereign hand accompanied with man's culpability is written throughout the Scripture. Here God speaks of election and clearly points it is because of God's personal sovereign choice. Not because of any decision these individuals would make rather because of Him who calls.

though they were not yet born and had done nothing either good or bad-in order that God's purpose of election might continue, not because of works but because of him who calls- - Romans 9:11

Why not recognize what God plainly says? And then to solidify his point Paul strengthens his case:

14 What shall we say then? Is there injustice on God's part? By no means!
15 For he says to Moses, "I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion."
16 So then it depends not on human will or exertion, but on God, who has mercy. - Romans 9:14-16


Perhaps you do not like my answers.
I have heard your kind of answers over and over through many years of my Christian life. It has nothing to do with not liking your answers. It has everything to do with your inability to stop using logical fallacies. When will you get it?
 

mjrhealth

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Logic, lest examine,

How we have God, all soverign, all powerfull, creating man, an arrogant, pridefull, selfish creation. Now this mazing God offers this man a plan of salvation, knowing that he will argue, contend, fight, reject and be troubled by it. and fight and rebell all teh way. Now if there is any logic to that. Please tell me.
 

justaname

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Mar 14, 2011
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OzSpen said:
Here you go again with another red herring. In this reply, you did not address what I wrote in #46, with the evidence I provided to demonstrate the context of Rom 9:14-16 deals with Israel, both before and after those verses.

But justaname doesn't want to deal with this context for Rom 9:14-16 that I have stated clearly, so you deflect to what you want to talk about.
Here I conceded that Israel is within the context with my "yes, but" statement. Yet now lets get more detailed. In Romans 8:23-39 the Christian is the subject in this section. I agree national Israel is the subject in verses 1-5. Contextually the focus shifts at verse 6. Verse 6 and 7 deal with what one in Paul's day would consider Israel, yet Paul wants to emphasize Abraham's descendants, redefining what people thought of Israel. He says they are not all Israel, who are from Israel (the man). I will pick up at verse 8.

8 That is, it is not the children of the flesh who are children of God, but the children of the promise are regarded as descendants.
9 For this is the word of promise: “AT THIS TIME I WILL COME, AND SARAH SHALL HAVE A SON.”

Here now the direct context are the children of promise, the true descendants of Abraham. No longer is national Israel in mind.

10 And not only this, but there was Rebekah also, when she had conceived twins by one man, our father Isaac;
11 for though the twins were not yet born and had not done anything good or bad, so that God’s purpose according to His choice would stand, not because of works but because of Him who calls,
12 it was said to her, “THE OLDER WILL SERVE THE YOUNGER.”
13 Just as it is written, “JACOB I LOVED, BUT ESAU I HATED.”

Here Paul switches to individuals, who were not yet born as the direct context indicates. Technically Paul is stating God selected individuals before anything had been done because of Him who calls, stressing God's sovereign election.

Moving on...

14 What shall we say then? There is no injustice with God, is there? May it never be!
15 For He says to Moses, “I WILL HAVE MERCY ON WHOM I HAVE MERCY, AND I WILL HAVE COMPASSION ON WHOM I HAVE COMPASSION.”
16 So then it does not depend on the man who wills or the man who runs, but on God who has mercy.

This then is referring to the twins, individuals, where one was selected for God's great name over the other.

17 For the Scripture says to Pharaoh, “FOR THIS VERY PURPOSE I RAISED YOU UP, TO DEMONSTRATE MY POWER IN YOU, AND THAT MY NAME MIGHT BE PROCLAIMED THROUGHOUT THE WHOLE EARTH.”
18 So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires.

Here Paul references Pharaoh, another individual, that was raised up for God's own purpose, again for His namesake.

19 You will say to me then, “Why does He still find fault? For who resists His will?”
20 On the contrary, who are you, O man, who answers back to God? The thing molded will not say to the molder, “Why did you make me like this,” will it?
21 Or does not the potter have a right over the clay, to make from the same lump one vessel for honorable use and another for common use?
22 What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction?
23 And He did so to make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory,
24 even us, whom He also called, not from among Jews only, but also from among Gentiles.

Here then is where Paul begins to conclude and apply his argument, applying it to those who receive God's mercy. Here he speaks of vessels prepared for honorable use, and another for common use, again individuals. Without question God's sovereign choice is being stressed. I argue these vessels prepared are both raised for God's namesake. Those prepared for wrath proclaim God's justice, those prepared for glory proclaim God's mercy.

So then as Paul applies God's sovereign election to individuals for God's namesake he eventually applies this to all of humanity. Those prepared for glory we would consider to be Christians. (cf Romans 8:28-30)

OzSpen said:
As for believing Jesus was the Son of God as an act of the will, I most definitely answered it this way:

It seems I assumed too much.

I thought you were capable of understanding Titus 2:11 (ESV) that shows God's grace has appeared [in Jesus] bringing salvation for all people [i.e. freeing the will] and in Acts 16:30-31 (ESV) the Philippian jailer was told '[you] believe in the Lord Jesus, and you will be saved'.

See my article, How to interpret ‘appeared’ in Titus 2:11

Oz
I fully understand Titus 2:11, yet we need not agree on your interpretation. I understand and proclaim salvation is offered to all people. There in no need to infer the human will is freed within this context though.

You still have not answered the question though. This is simply a way to avoid a yes or no answer. I can infer from your answer you believe it is a act of the will to believe Jesus is the Christ, yet I would rather a direct answer.
 
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