So, Philippians 1:6 can be applied to us today, by your admission.
Yet in Philippians 1:1, the entire epistle is written "
to the saints which are at Philippi."
Just like Jesus was speaking to the scribes and Pharisees in John 8:24, and can also be applied to all of us today.
Why do we have to be careful not to marry these things together? Because you say so? Because it does not agree with your doctrine?
You have shown forth a double-standard in your interpretation of scripture.
On the one hand, something that was written according to scripture to specific saints at Philippi can apply to us today in your book.
But something that our Lord Himself said to the scribes and Pharisees cannot be applied to us today because what Jesus said to Jews cannot possibly apply to Gentiles. Thus Jesus is discriminating against the Jewish people and favoring the Gentiles in His statement; for Gentiles will not die in their sins for the same crime that puts Jews in hell.
To this I would say that many believe that the law is given only to the Jewish people; and yet it is a schoolmaster that led all of us to Christ, if we are in Christ. This means that the law is even a schoolmaster for Gentiles, to lead them to Christ.
But many would say that it is only written to and is only for the Jewish people.
Thus we find that what is believed to be written to Jews alone also applies to Gentiles.
Gal 3:23, But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
Gal 3:24, Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.
Gal 3:25, But after that faith is come, we are no longer under a schoolmaster.