What do you think this text says about the deity of Christ?
- Thread starter oldhermit
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Is it just me, or was this the silliest rebuttal ever?
Now let's see FO explain what exactly is a god-man, without sound like a silly fool... he won't even try!
How in the world, by what I stated, could you not possibly know what I'm on about?Eh? Jesus is God made flesh. If that's not divinity, nothing is. Not sure what you're on about.
That was again, the silliest remark ever!
Oh my goodness, you're justbyfaith in disguise, aren't you? Or, a brother or relative, definitely a kin of some sort.
I thought that one wasn't allowed to have two accounts on these sites? You must be a relative then!
I'm scared to engage right now, but I'll try. Did you tell APAK that Jesus was divine, and then call him silly for not accepting that notion?
FO: So do I have you on record saying that YHWH, the Father of Yahshua and us, used his own (Holy) Spirit to conceive with the human woman Mary, to conceive and form a human zygote, and thus recreate or propagate his own divine Spirit into a human body and thus became a god-man with two impossible natures where one could be turned off at (One) will (pun intended), and the other (another will) stay active? And further, YHWH's own Spirit then did not miraculously create and insert and combine human male (chromosomes) genes with Mary's genes to fertilize an egg to form a 100% human being, as scripture strongly suggests in more than a few ways?
YHWH previously used his Holy Spirit to produce at least the male, if not also the female genes as well, into a man with a body formed from the element of the earth. This first man never became divine nor did the last Adam, Yahshua. The first was geared for the earth and earthly life, and the 2nd created for the heavenlies and spiritual life and with a big plus; to be our Saviour and our passage to the heavenlies with him.
Neither of the Adams were divine. They were both miraculously created in different ways with the same Spirit of their Father. The first formed from scratch, and the second with the interaction from a human woman, to become a new born baby and not as a mature man from his creation, like the 1st Adam. There were some great reasons for this..for another time maybe
You know that the 2nd and last Adam was innocent as the 1st Adam from birth, because there was no contamination with another life form or sinful nature (will) of a human being. The first Adam sinned, the 2nd did not sin. Of course Yahshua was possessed by the Spirit from birth where as the 1st Adam was not, and he later sinned because of this absence. The 1st Adam was given complete spiritual freedom and independence (absent of the Father's will) and you can see what happened to him.
Both Adams were tested; one with complete independence and the other with the Spirit indwelt, and under physical and mental torture and trials. As true believers we also have this same Spirit indwelt that does provide for us to share our ONE will or ONE human nature with it (from him), as was and is with Christ with his ONE human nature. This does not make either of us divine though, because we (Christ and us) each have the same Spirit of the Father. Although we are given it at least on this earth, for a much different purpose with much less powers and influence, indeed.
We are given the Spirit to become like Christ in every way. Christ was given his Spirit from birth, from the same Father, to become like his Father, who is also YHWH or 'God.' As we are not Christ or Yahshua, neither is Christ not his Father, also called the Lord God or YHWH.
YHWH, the Father and God of all in one, with no co-equal, never changes, as his love, peace and truth is constant and also never changes.
Thanks for the opportunity to share with you what the Spirit of the Father says from my heart,
APAK
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It is not the Spirit of the Father who is speaking from your heart; for you are preaching false doctrine.
Jesus said,
Jhn 10:30, I and my Father are one.
Now those false teachers will change the plain meaning of this verse to say that Jesus and the Father are merely one in purpose.
However, the scribes and Pharisees understood exactly what Jesus was saying:
Jhn 10:31, Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
Jhn 10:32, Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
Jhn 10:33, The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
Jhn 10:30, I and my Father are one.
Now those false teachers will change the plain meaning of this verse to say that Jesus and the Father are merely one in purpose.
However, the scribes and Pharisees understood exactly what Jesus was saying:
Jhn 10:31, Then the Jews took up stones again to stone him.
Jhn 10:32, Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?
Jhn 10:33, The Jews answered him, saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God.
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tigger 2
Well-Known Member
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The OP was answered in #190 (p. 10) above.
Or in my personal study found here: Examining the Trinity: Hebrews 1:8 - “Thy Throne, O God”
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