What was the date of the Crucifixion?

[The Light]

The Church is the Holy Nation of all faithful believers from all tribes and nations, past, present, and future. There are no limits within that number.

Great. However, the first fruits of the second harvest are 144,000.

 

[Zao is life]

The Church and the 144,000

Revelation 7:3-4 describe the 144,000 as “sealed.” That description is reserved in the NT for believers in Christ – His Body and Bride – His Church:

2 Corinthians 1:21-22
Now He who establishes us with you in Christ and anointed us is God, who also sealed us and gave us the Spirit in our hearts as a pledge.

Ephesians 1:13
In Him, you also, after listening to the message of truth, the gospel of your salvation—having also believed, you were sealed in Him with the Holy Spirit of promise,

Ephesians 4:30
Do not grieve the Holy Spirit of God, by whom you were sealed for the day of redemption.


The Revelation 7 passage is therefore conveying the insight that the OT Israelitish faithful saints of God are included under the NT banner of the Church. This is further confirmed by the meanings of the names of the listed tribes and substitutes (Levi and Joseph replacing Dan and Ephraim), describing spiritual qualities and experiences of those who comprise the Church:

• Judah means “praise” (Gen 29:35)
• Reuben means “see, a Son” (Gen 29:32)
• Gad means “fortunate” (Gen 30:11)
• Asher means “happy” (Gen 30:13)
• Naphtali means “wrestling” (Gen 30:8)
• Manasseh means “forgetting” (Gen 41:51)
• Simeon means “heard” (Gen 29:33)
• Levi means “attached” (Gen 29:34)
• Issachar means “wages” (Gen 30:18)
• Zebulon means “dwelling” (Gen 30:20)
• Joseph means “He will add” (Gen 30:24)
• Benjamin means “Son of the right hand” (Gen 35:17–18)

Similarly, the meanings of the names of Dan and Ephraim convey the reasons for their exclusion:

• Dan means “a serpent by the way”(Genesis 49:17)

Satan in the guise of the serpent was responsible for the fall of mankind in Genesis 3, and for the bruising of Messiah's heel in Scripture's first recorded prophecy of Genesis 3:15. It was the same serpent Satan whose head Messiah bruised at Calvary.

• Ephraim means “fruitful in the land of mine affliction” (Genesis 41:52)

The reference to “the land of mine affliction” in Ephraim's name's meaning is to that of Egypt, which in Scripture is both a literal and spiritual reality and symbol of bondage. But the Church, God's Chosen People, do not inhabit a land of spiritual affliction and bondage. Rather, they inhabit the Heavenly Jerusalem on Mount Sion (Hebrews 12:22,23), located in the Heavenly Country that God has prepared for the faithful (Hebrews 11:16).

Of additional significance is the order in which the names are presented, differing from the usual presentation by order of birth. In particular, Judah appears first, in recognition of its role as the tribal progenitor of Christ, the Lion of Judah.

While rebellion and apostasy were repetitive afflictions of the OT Israelites, there were still thousands who remained faithful (1 Kings 19:18). Their number is depicted as 12, a scriptural value representing faithfulness; multiplied by 12, representing the faithful from each of the twelve tribes; multiplied by 1,000 representing the indeterminate but large number (Psalms 50:10; Psalms 91:7; Revelation 5:11) of the total faithful in Israel; thus, 144,000.

Revelation 14 continues the descriptions further reflecting the qualities and experiences of the redeemed – the Church. Absent here is any mention of tribal, ethnic, or other distinctions, thus conveying the reality of the inclusivity and unity of the NT Church which now embraces both Israelite and Gentile. Its number can also be depicted as 12, representing faithfulness; multipled by 12 representing the 12 faithful apostles, who with the prophets comprise the foundation of the NT church, with Christ as the Chief Cornerstone (Ephesians 2:20); multiplied by 1,000 representing the indeterminate but large number of the total faithful in the NT Church; thus, also 144,000.

The NT Church's inclusivity and unity are declared in the following:

Galatians 3:28
There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free man, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus.

Ephesians 2:14
For He Himself is our peace, who made both groups into one and broke down the barrier of the dividing wall…

Colossians 3:11
Where there is neither Greek nor Jew, circumcision nor uncircumcision, Barbarian, Scythian, bond nor free: but Christ is all, and in all.


The 144,00 are described as celibate, meaning that as the Bride of Christ, they are not defiled by adultery with the world (James 4:4). They sing a new song of deliverance and victory. They follow Christ wherever He goes. Their residence is heavenly Jerusalem on Mount Zion. (Hebrews 12:22)

No doubt about it…the Church is written all over the 144,000.

I agree.

"But what if God, willing to demonstrate his wrath and to make known his power, has endured with much patience the objects of wrath prepared for destruction? And what if he is willing to make known the wealth of his glory on the objects of mercy that he has prepared beforehand for glory - even us, whom he has called, not only from the Jews but also from the Gentiles? As he also says in Hosea:

"I will call those who were not my people, 'My people,' and I will call her who was unloved, 'My beloved." And in the very place where it was said to them, 'You are not my people,' there they will be called 'sons of the living God.'" Romans 9:22-26

In its context, the prophecy Paul quotes was referring to 10 of the 12 tribes, and Paul includes the Gentiles in its fulfillment. Those 10 tribes in scripture were a.k.a "Ephraim" and a.k.a "the house of Israel" - and they had ceased being a nation (one nation) before God in 725 B.C (Hosea 1:5-10; Isaiah 7:8-9).

How can they still exist as a nation if they ceased to exist as a nation? The descendants of the vast majority of "Ephraim" intermarried with Gentiles in the nations to which they had been scattered. "The lost 10 tribes" cannot even be found anymore. Yet God said,

"However, in the future the number of the people of Israel will be like the sand of the sea which can be neither measured nor numbered. Although it was said to them, "You are not my people," it will be said to them, "You are children of the living God!"

Then the people of Judah and the people of Israel will be gathered together. They will appoint for themselves one leader, and will flourish in the land. Certainly, the day of Jezreel will be great!" (Hosea 1:10-11).

Is it strange that with regard to Ephraim, Jacob (Israel), on his deathbed, told Joseph:

"Manasseh too will become a nation and he too will become great. In spite of this, his younger brother Ephraim will be even greater and his descendants will become the fullness of the Gentiles (a multitude of nations)." Genesis 48:19 - the Hebrew words are 'mlo (fullness) and goy.

Today 10 of those 12 tribes are a multitude of nations. Only two are ethnic: Judah and Benjamin, and today Benjamin cannot be found either, because "he" too has become amalgamated with Judah.

 

[The Light]

Hang on. Tiberius 15th year was Aug AD28 to Aug AD29, so Jesus first Passover would have been April AD29 and his last Passover April AD32. See FotG’s post number 67.

So, like I said, it doesn’t “cut the butter” for AD 30 OR AD33. However, there is another explanation. I’ll get back tomorrow.

No need to hang on. See my post 69 which I'll repost here.

I originally make the same calculation as you did. I was wondering how I was getting AD 28 and most were quoting AD 29. I actually went to the same sight as you and saw this statement. So I edited my post.

" According to Roman law, the first year is counted as the year of succession and not as a year in which he would have reigned. This can be confirmed by such Roman historians as Tacitus and Suetonius.[3] Consequently, that would mean his reign is counted from A.D. 15. This impacts the dating of the start of John the Baptist’s ministry as given by Luke in Luke 3:1-2."

We have the facts. We don't need another explanation to the truth.

FACT - Luke 3 says that John the Baptists ministry started in the 15th year of Tiberius Caesar.
FACT - The 15th year of Tiberius Caesar is 29 AD.
FACT - If we count 4 Passovers from 29 AD being that Jesus ministry was 3.5 years and ended on Passover we arrive at 33 AD,
FACT - There is no way Jesus could have died in 30 AD as you have been claiming. FACT.

 

[Zao is life]

No need to hang on. See my post 69 which I'll repost here.

I originally make the same calculation as you did. I was wondering how I was getting AD 28 and most were quoting AD 29. I actually went to the same sight as you and saw this statement. So I edited my post.

" According to Roman law, the first year is counted as the year of succession and not as a year in which he would have reigned. This can be confirmed by such Roman historians as Tacitus and Suetonius.[3] Consequently, that would mean his reign is counted from A.D. 15. This impacts the dating of the start of John the Baptist’s ministry as given by Luke in Luke 3:1-2."

We have the facts. We don't need another explanation to the truth.

FACT - Luke 3 says that John the Baptists ministry started in the 15th year of Tiberius Caesar.
FACT - The 15th year of Tiberius Caesar is 29 AD.
FACT - If we count 4 Passovers from 29 AD being that Jesus ministry was 3.5 years and ended on Passover we arrive at 33 AD,
FACT - There is no way Jesus could have died in 30 AD as you have been claiming. FACT.

I don't know but I always start from the premise of the Bible is correct and secular history is wrong whenever there (seems to be) a discrepancy between the implied date of something written in scripture and the date according to secular history.

Apparently there is a lot of disagreement among historians about what year Tiberius' reign began.

It changes nothing about Mark 14:12-13, so why are we getting side-tracked with "who knows which" year Tiberius' reign began?

 

[The Light]

I don't know but I always start from the premise of the Bible is correct and secular history is wrong whenever there (seems to be) a discrepancy between the implied date of something written in scripture and the date according to secular history.

I totally 100% agree

Apparently there is a lot of disagreement among historians about what year Tiberius' reign began.

I think we can be sure that the 15th year of Tiberius was 29 AD

It changes nothing about Mark 14:12-13, so why are we getting side-tracked with "who knows which" year Tiberius' reign began?

I agree. I will research this this evening and try to figure out what is going on as I believe that Jesus died on Passover and yet we can see that according to Mark He ate the Passover meal which occurs at night and we know thet He died at 3 in the afternoon. Strange.

 

[covenantee]

Great. However, the first fruits of the second harvest are 144,000.

Revelation 14:1-5 encompasses the Church in its entirety from the OT through the NT, with no tribal or other distinctions countenanced. It is represented by the number 144,000.

 

[Zao is life]

I totally 100% agree
I think we can be sure that the 15th year of Tiberius was 29 AD

I agree. I will research this this evening and try to figure out what is going on as I believe that Jesus died on Passover and yet we can see that according to Mark He ate the Passover meal which occurs at night and we know thet He died at 3 in the afternoon. Strange.

I think that maybe the saints have assumed things and as a result cannot see the wood for the forest. The 15th began the Exodus from Egypt, from the house of bondage.And it began the seven-day period the people had to eat unleavened bread.

Our Lord did not die with the Passover lamb on the 14th, though He is our Passover Lamb of God - but He did not die on the Day of Atonement either, though he atoned for our sins - but the Day of Atonement marks the mid-point between any seven-year period in the shmita cycles, and He died mid-'week'. The high priest entered the holy of holies once a year on the Day of Atonement and sprinkled the blood of the sacrifice on the mercy seat.

So the appointed times point to Him, but do not have to be fulfilled exactly on the same day / date - otherwise the 14th Nisan would have been the Day of Atonement also, or the day the Passover lamb was sacrificed would have been on 10 Tishri, and Jesus would have died on that day.

So we mustn't lose sight of the wood because of the forest. He died on the day that the deliverance from the house of bondage began (15 Nisan), and He is called the Lamb of God and our Passover Lamb. It's good enough to tell us that the appointed times were given because they all point to Him.

The 15th began the Exodus from Egypt, from the house of bondage. And it began the seven-day period the people had to eat unleavened bread:

@The Light 1 Corinthians 5:7
Therefore purge out the old leaven so that you may be a new lump, as you are unleavened. For also Christ our Passover is sacrificed for us. Therefore let us keep the feast; not with old leaven, nor with the leaven of malice and wickedness, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.

.. and He atoned for our sins that day - but it wasn't Yom Kippur either.

 

[Christian Gedge]

Fantastic post FotG.

Yes, when we really think about it, every lamb offered (both the morning and afternoon) pointed to the sacrifice of Christ, not just the Paschal lamb. Notice the lamb in the morning of the 15th following the Passover dinner was killed it 9 o’clock approx when Jesus was nailed on the cross. Then the afternoon lamb was killed at 3 o’clock, the same time as Jesus died. They all point to the sacrifice of Christ.

 

[Zao is life]

Fantastic post FotG.

Yes, when we really think about it, every lamb offered (both the morning and afternoon) pointed to the sacrifice of Christ, not just the Paschal lamb. Notice the lamb in the morning of the 15th following the Passover dinner was killed it 9 o’clock approx when Jesus was nailed on the cross. Then the afternoon lamb was killed at 3 o’clock, the same time as Jesus died. They all point to the sacrifice of Christ.

Copy @The Light
So true, and thank you for pointing it out Christian (because I wasn't even aware of that :) )

Also, the people in Egypt were spared the death of the firstborn because of the blood of the Passover lamb sprinkled on their doorposts.

Was Jesus, the Firstborn of God and of all creation, spared death, though He ate the Passover lamb with His disciples, and though He cried out to God to let that cup pass from Him?

So the appointed times teach us about Christ, and about our salvation - but we mustn't get stuck in a legalistic mindset, based on false assumptions, so that we create a list of "God had to fulfill "this" on "this" day / date because that's what the appointed time teaches us".

And I won't even get started on how many things the Feast of Tabernacles represents - including the fact that we are still in these tents (our bodies) "groaning within ourselves, awaiting adoption, the redemption of our body." (Romans 8:23); and the fact that the Feast also represents God Tabernacled among His people in Christ - both when He walked the earth, and again in the NHNE.

But the resurrection from the dead does not have to occur during the Feast of Tabernacles, nor does it have to occur on the Day of Trumpets, any more than Christ atoned for our sins on the Day of Atonement ....

All the law was in place to teach us about our need for salvation, and about that salvation.

 

[The Light]

Our Lord did not die with the Passover lamb on the 14th, though He is our Passover Lamb of God - but He did not die on the Day of Atonement either, though he atoned for our sins - but the Day of Atonement marks the mid-point between any seven-year period in the shmita cycles, and He died mid-'week'. The high priest entered the holy of holies once a year on the Day of Atonement and sprinkled the blood of the sacrifice on the mercy seat.

Ok Fullness of the Gentiles,
I have reviewed Mark 14 as I said I would, and I also looked at Matthew and Luke. The synoptic Gospels seem to be pretty consistent and looked as if no new information would be garnered. Then I hit John. Oh John. He seems to give a completely different view of what happened during Passover day. Why? I don't know at this time. Consider some of these verses.

John 18
28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.

29 Pilate then went out unto them, and said, What accusation bring ye against this man?

It seems that when Jesus was before Pilate, the Passover meal has not occurred yet. That does not appear to agree with the other Gospels.

Here's more:

John 18
38 Pilate saith unto him, What is truth? And when he had said this, he went out again unto the Jews, and saith unto them, I find in him no fault at all.

39 But ye have a custom, that I should release unto you one at the passover: will ye therefore that I release unto you the King of the Jews?

40 Then cried they all again, saying, Not this man, but Barabbas. Now Barabbas was a robber.

It appears again that Jesus is before Pilate and Passover has not occurred.

John 19
14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!

By reading these verses in John, it certainly appears that Jesus dies on Passover. It only makes sense, that the Lamb of God died on the Feast of Passover. He is the Passover Lamb.

This also agrees with Jesus dying on April 3, AD 33, Passover.

Why the synoptic Gospels do not appear to agree with Johns Gospel, I don't understand at this time. What are your thoughts Brother?

 

[Christian Gedge]

Oh John.

"Dear John,
Oh how I hate to write ..."
​

 

[Christian Gedge]

John 18:28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.

Non-Jewish readers may be excused for interjecting, “But hadn’t they eaten it the night before?” That is when Matthew, Mark and Luke said it took place. Some commentators just choose to ignore John, but others make much of it, claiming the Paschal lambs were slain when Jesus died. Still others suggest there may have been several Jewish factions observing different timetables. Such explanations are unnecessary.

John was simply referring loosely to the overall ‘Passover week’ which included the feast days following the actual Passover day. On the morning of the first day following the Paschal evening, was another meal called ‘Chagigah’. This is the meal John was referring to, and as one rabbinic expert noted, “the Chagigah might not be offered by any person who had contracted Levitical defilement.” So, the ‘contradiction’ is really no contradiction at all; it was a special morning meal eaten as part of the celebration.

 

[Zao is life]

Ok Fullness of the Gentiles,
I have reviewed Mark 14 as I said I would, and I also looked at Matthew and Luke. The synoptic Gospels seem to be pretty consistent and looked as if no new information would be garnered. Then I hit John. Oh John. He seems to give a completely different view of what happened during Passover day. Why? I don't know at this time. Consider some of these verses.

John 18
28 Then led they Jesus from Caiaphas unto the hall of judgment: and it was early; and they themselves went not into the judgment hall, lest they should be defiled; but that they might eat the passover.

29 Pilate then went out unto them, and said, What accusation bring ye against this man?

It seems that when Jesus was before Pilate, the Passover meal has not occurred yet. That does not appear to agree with the other Gospels.

Here's more:

John 18
38 Pilate saith unto him, What is truth? And when he had said this, he went out again unto the Jews, and saith unto them, I find in him no fault at all.

39 But ye have a custom, that I should release unto you one at the passover: will ye therefore that I release unto you the King of the Jews?

40 Then cried they all again, saying, Not this man, but Barabbas. Now Barabbas was a robber.

It appears again that Jesus is before Pilate and Passover has not occurred.

John 19
14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!

By reading these verses in John, it certainly appears that Jesus dies on Passover. It only makes sense, that the Lamb of God died on the Feast of Passover. He is the Passover Lamb.

This also agrees with Jesus dying on April 3, AD 33, Passover.

Why the synoptic Gospels do not appear to agree with Johns Gospel, I don't understand at this time. What are your thoughts Brother?

@Christian Gedge answered above, thank goodness - because I would not have been able to answer the "apparent" discrepancy - though I would have remained 100% convinced that the authors of the synoptic gospels knew what they were talking about, and were not mistaken.

I guess how we interpret what is written in the synoptic gospels, depends on whether we believe the outcome "should" point to AD30 or AD33.

For me it's not a problem at all whether it points to AD30 or AD33, because I do not have any part of Daniel's 70th not having been fulfilled in the first century. The Day of Atonement marks the mid-point of any seven-year period, and the style of writing in the prophets does not make it uncommon for Daniel to have been speaking both about the Messiah and the prince who was to come and destroy the sanctuary - in both Daniel 9:26 and Daniel 9:27:

• Verse 26 says the city and sanctuary will be destroyed.

• Verse 27 says why it will be destroyed.

So let's read it the way it's often written in Apocalyptic / Prophetic biblical literature:

The Messiah:
verse 26: And after sixty-two weeks Messiah shall be cut off, but not for Himself.
verse 27: And he (Messiah) shall confirm a covenant with many for one week. And in the midst of the week he (Messiah) shall cause the sacrifice and the offering to cease.

City & Sanctuary:
verse 26: And the people of the ruler who shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary. And the end of it shall be with the flood, and ruins are determined, until the end shall be war.
verse 27: and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate,even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate.

So the Messiah confirms the New Covenant with many, and is cut off in the middle of the week, atoning for our sins. There is still 1,260 days left of the 70th week, and there is also 40 years years between AD30 and AD70.

In the wilderness during the days of the Exodus, Moses was opposed by Dathan and Abiram, and the earth swallowed them up, ending the opposition. The earth "swallowing up the river" in Revelation 12 could be a symbolic reference to the destruction of Jerusalem and its temple, 40 years after Christ's ascension into heaven, and both the 1,260 days left of Daniel's 70th week and the 40 years until the destruction of the temple could be what what the woman "in the wilderness" in Revelation 12 symbolizes (the flood being the opposition to the gospel on the part of the leaders of Judea, as well as the Romans and their leaders, such as Nero).

 

[The Light]

John was simply referring loosely to the overall ‘Passover week’ which included the feast days following the actual Passover day. On the morning of the first day following the Paschal evening, was another meal called ‘Chagigah’. This is the meal John was referring to, and as one rabbinic expert noted, “the Chagigah might not be offered by any person who had contracted Levitical defilement.” So, the ‘contradiction’ is really no contradiction at all; it was a special morning meal eaten as part of the celebration.

And yet here we see Passover has not occurred as they have a custom to release a prisoner on Passover and Pilate was offering to release Jesus so your explanation does not hold water.

John 18
38 Pilate saith unto him, What is truth? And when he had said this, he went out again unto the Jews, and saith unto them, I find in him no fault at all.

39 But ye have a custom, that I should release unto you one at the passover: will ye therefore that I release unto you the King of the Jews?

40 Then cried they all again, saying, Not this man, but Barabbas. Now Barabbas was a robber.

It appears again that Jesus is before Pilate and Passover has not occurred.

John also tells us that it was the preparation of the Passover and about the 6th hour when Jesus was delivered up to be crucified.

John 19
14 And it was the preparation of the passover, and about the sixth hour: and he saith unto the Jews, Behold your King!

15 But they cried out, Away with him, away with him, crucify him. Pilate saith unto them, Shall I crucify your King? The chief priests answered, We have no king but Caesar.

16 Then delivered he him therefore unto them to be crucified. And they took Jesus, and led him away.

Jesus died April 3, AD 33 which is on Passover.

 

[The Light]

@Christian Gedge answered above, thank goodness - because I would not have been able to answer the "apparent" discrepancy - though I would have remained 100% convinced that the authors of the synoptic gospels knew what they were talking about, and were not mistaken.

No Sir. Christian Gedge did not answer Johns placing Jesus death on the Passover. And He will not be able to with those type of explanations. Matthew, Mark and Luke tell us that Jesus ate the Passover meal with them and died the next day. I believe them. John tells us that Jesus died on the Passover. I believe him also. The Word of God is not wrong, only our understanding is wrong. The only way I know of that Jesus could have died the day after Passover and died on Passover would be that there are two Passovers. Jesus held a Passover with the disciples the day before the scheduled Passover. All are telling the truth as thy Word is Truth.

I guess how we interpret what is written in the synoptic gospels, depends on whether we believe the outcome "should" point to AD30 or AD33.

That is what happens continually and should NEVER happen. It is why people are blind to the truth and lack understanding and end up with blind teachers. The blind leading the blind. Do not interpret what is written by what you think or want the outcome to be. Interpret what is written by the truth. It is the truth that sets us free. Should we guess whether the 70th week of Daniel has been completed or listen to others. Or should we go by the Word of God which tells us in Luke 3 that in the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar the word of God came unto John the Baptist and he went forth preaching. That tells us that there is no way Jesus died in 30 AD. Straight from the Word of God. That is why when you presented Mark 14:12-13 I knew things did not add up and the answer had to be in the Word of God. And the Word of Truth was given by John that Jesus died on Passover. That's a fact.

 

[covenantee]

Should we guess whether the 70th week of Daniel has been completed or listen to others.

There is no recognized defender of the true faith in 17 centuries of historical Christian orthodoxy before the 19th century who denied that Christ fulfilled Daniel 9:24 at Calvary.

There is no recognized defender of the true faith in 17 centuries of historical Christian orthodoxy before the 19th century who identified the Covenant Confirmer of Daniel 9:27 as antichrist rather than Christ.

There is no recognized defender of the true faith in 17 centuries of historical Christian orthodoxy before the 19th century who identified the One who caused the sacrifice and oblation of Daniel 9:27 to cease as antichrist rather than Christ.

To whom should we listen?

1. Recognized defenders of the true faith in 17 centuries of historical Christian orthodoxy before the 19th century
or
2. Modern deniers thereof

No guessing necessary.

 

[Christian Gedge]

And yet here we see Passover has not occurred as they have a custom to release a prisoner on Passover and Pilate was offering to release Jesus so your explanation does not hold water.

That’s because Jesus was crucified on Passover day and Passover day was the 15th of Nisan. (Numbers 33:3) The Paschal meal was eaten early 15th. The crucifixion was the following morning which was still the 15th.

John also tells us that it was the preparation of the Passover and about the 6th hour when Jesus was delivered up to be crucified.

That’s because John’s Gospel uses the Roman time system, the sixth hour being 6 am.

Jesus died April 3, AD 33 which is on Passover.

When are you going to let me get on to the next evidence of the AD30 position?

 

[covenantee]

Should we guess whether the 70th week of Daniel has been completed or listen to others.

In applying grammatical antecedents, or referents, to Daniel 9:25-27, it is seen that the referent of each "he" in Daniel 9:27 is "the prince" in Daniel 9:26, and the referent of "the prince" in Daniel 9:26 is "Messiah the Prince" in Daniel 9:25.

Thus Messiah the Prince is solely the individual who is the theme of the passage.

No guessing necessary.

 

[The Light]

That’s because Jesus was crucified on Passover day and Passover day was the 15th of Nisan. (Numbers 33:3)

The Word of God still hasn't changed. The fifteenth day of the first month on the MORROW AFTER the Passover, means the Passover is on the 14th day. Why do you argue against the Word of God?
Numbers 33
3 And they departed from Rameses in the first month, on the fifteenth day of the first month; on the morrow after the passover the children of Israel went out with an high hand in the sight of all the Egyptians.

The Paschal meal was eaten early 15th. The crucifixion was the following morning which was still the 15th.

The question is not when is the Passover meal, it's when is the Passover and when is the Passover lamb killed. And better yet, when is the Passover according to the Word of God. Let's check and see if it has changed.

Leviticus 23
5 In the fourteenth day of the first month at even is the Lord's passover.

Nope. God hasn't changed His Word. He still considers the 14 day of the first month the Passover. Again, you go against the Word of God.

That’s because John’s Gospel uses the Roman time system, the sixth hour being 6 am.

Here's the difference. If you found that in the Word of God I would believe it. If I found in the Word of God, what you are saying is untrue, your track record says you would not accept the Word of God.

When are you going to let me get on to the next evidence of the AD30 position?

Please feel free to carry on. It's about time we get on to what Calander was used so your 30 AD date will work.
In case you are not keeping up, you have lost every argument to this point. Further, you argue against Gods written Word. As I have continually shown.

 

[The Light]

In applying grammatical antecedents, or referents, to Daniel 9:25-27, it is seen that the referent of each "he" in Daniel 9:27 is "the prince" in Daniel 9:26, and the referent of "the prince" in Daniel 9:26 is "Messiah the Prince" in Daniel 9:25.

Thus Messiah the Prince is solely the individual who is the theme of the passage.

No guessing necessary.

You obviously are unaware of the truncated past participle pronoun conversion.