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Where did I say that? I think you are lying. If not, show me where.
Thread titled:
KJV The Pure Word of God?
Post #34
So almost all Bible translators over the last 120+ years are a “cult” whose work is a “steaming pile?”
It all comes down to the old battle like I said before, between the Roman Catholic Church (of which Hort showed support towards per his personal letters), vs. the Protestant Faith.
Hmmm. I thought it was between good and evil not between God's chosen?
But what about you, are you a Catholic?
Not but I was raised a bad Catholic.
Took me a few minutes to get the cannibal bit, but... LOL.Only a cannibal can throw up his hands.
a) I am definitely not promoting the futility of translating the Bible. Where did you get that strange idea?
b) I can't handle the truth because I consider the KJV just another translation, and not a good one at that? Really? I don't consider you as qualified to judge me. BTW, your beloved KJV has this: Judge not, that ye be not judged" Or did you cut that out of your copy?
The New World translation is the one created by the Jehovah's Witnesses. Do you realize that?
Robert,
That's a very biased JW translation that reads JW false doctrine into the text.
If you want easy-to-read versions in simplified language, I suggest The New Living Translation and The Easy-to-Read Version. This latter version was originally translated for the deaf, so the language was simpler and the sentences shorter.
Oz
An unqualified team of FIVE men translated the NWT:
Fred Franz, Milton Henschel, George Gangas, Albert Schroeder, and Nathan Knorr.
Franz was the ONLY one of them who had ANY knowledge at all of Hebrew and Greek – and studied Greek for just TWO years. This did NOT include the Biblical Koine Greek in which the NT is written. He also claimed to be “self-educated” in Hebrew.
NONE of the remaining four men had ANY credentials OR qualifications to translate the Scriptures.
This fact alone should send up a giant RED FLAG for any serious Bible student.
Not but I was raised a bad Catholic.
Well, I don't hate Catholics. Lot of my friends are Catholics. And I recognize many good Christians among the Catholic Church.
I think that was a blessing, before the revised KJV omitted the name from those four places, because, like you said, you could use the KJV, and show people that God has a personal name... and they didn't want to object to their beloved translation.It amazes me to watch all the intense arguments about the accuracy of Bible translations among those who seem to have no problem with replacing the Tetragrammaton with Adonai 6,800 times in the Hebrew Scriptures. That is 6,800 falsehoods. Not just errors. Falsehoods. I appreciate the KJV leaving it where it belongs in 4 verses. That is better than most, regardless of the manuscripts used. I remember asking people some 50 years ago what God’s name is and they had no idea. I would show them Psalms 83:18 in the KJV. Many were very surprised and moved to learn more about the Bible.
Would that mean the KJV got it wrong at Acts 28:6 - Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god. ?Aunty Jane,
The New World Translation of John 1:1 (NWT) is a profound example of how the NWT got it wrong: "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god." "A god" violates a fundamental of Greek grammar:
The Jehovah’s Witnesses argue that the correct translation is “a god.” In so doing, they violate a canon of Greek Grammar. This rule has come to be known as “The Colwell Rule” (1933). It says that: “A definite predicate nominative has the article when it follows the verb; it does not have the article when it precedes the verb.” In the case of John 1:1, the clause in question says και θεος ην (and was God). The verb “was” (ην) follows the noun “God” (θεος). In short, in Greek usage, we wouldn’t expect a definite article (the) because it’s not necessary. According to rule, we would expect the definite article to occur with a noun following the verb. The reason the definite article is absent is not because John is denying the consubstantiality of the Son with the Father but because the grammar doesn’t need the definite article. Further, as Countess continues, the New World Translation is not (as of 1967) even consistent with it’s own stated principles (R Scott Clarke).
What many fail to realize is that 4of the 5 men on the translation committee producing the complete 1961 edition had no Hebrew or Greek training whatsoever. The fifth, who claimed to know both languages, failed a simple Hebrew test while under oath in a Scottish court. . . . Charles L. Feinberg noted, “I can assure you that the rendering which the Jehovah’s Witnesses give John 1:1 is not held by any reputable Greek scholar.” (source)
JWs deny the deity of Christ and this translation of John 1:1 confirms that view.
What paraphrases of the Bible did I recommend?
Oz
P.S. Are you a supporter of Jehovah's Witness beliefs?
It should be noted also that Colwell said, "...if the context suggests that the predicate is definite, it should be translated as a definite noun..."Here are some quotes regarding Colwell’s rule.
Colwell himself said:
"The following rules may be tentatively formulated....definite predicate nouns which precede the verb usually lack the article.."-Journal of Biblical Literature,Vol.52,1933,p.20.
"According, from the point of view of grammar alone,[theos en ho logos]could be rendered "the Word was a god." This leads me to affirm that one may not infer from [Colwell's]rule 2b that anarthrous predicate nouns which precede the verb are usually definite. Indeed, such nouns will usually be qualitative in emphasis."
Murray Harris - Jesus as God - The New Testament Use of Theos In Reference to Jesus (pg 312)
The New World Translation (NWT) was tailored for the perverted doctrines invented by Charles Taze Russell, the false prophet and founder of the Watchtower Society.I gather you do not think it is an accurate version Bread. Do you have an example, and how it should be rendered?
Would that mean the KJV got it wrong at Acts 28:6 - Howbeit they looked when he should have swollen, or fallen down dead suddenly: but after they had looked a great while, and saw no harm come to him, they changed their minds, and said that he was a god. ?