In your opinion. There is zero evidence to this stretch in the bible.
Start with (Ps. 2:7) and (Acts 13:33).
Stranger
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In your opinion. There is zero evidence to this stretch in the bible.
Sorry, what was the question again?It is not a strawman argument. It is a legitimate question. Why won't you answer it? Scared? If you're scared, say you're scared.
Does the answer trouble you? Will your theology fold like a house of cards?
Stranger
It's self-evident that the Lord Jesus is in view: John 1.14; John 1.18.That's odd. It had never occurred to me that anyone would read the beginning of John and not come away with the understanding that John was speaking of Jesus...but I see it's so. Don't mean you are odd, just that the thought john wasn't speaking of Jesus is odd to me.
But God does not say of the Son: you r throne "o h son of God" will last forever. God says of the Son, GOD - not S ON of God. So why do you ask then why we are called sons of God...?
God says of the son: your throne, oh God...
So my question was: why does God call Jesus God? I think it is because Jesus is God. But I wanted to know why YOU think God calls Jesus God.
That's odd. It had never occurred to me that anyone would read the beginning of John and not come away with the understanding that John was speaking of Jesus...but I see it's so. Don't mean you are odd, just that the thought john wasn't speaking of Jesus is odd to me.
Always good to make Scripture the ultimate reference point.I was hoping for a new insight or other verses of scriptures regarding this.
What happens if you don't have and cannot obtain a Bible? What happens if you cannot read [illiterate]?Always good to make Scripture the ultimate reference point.
Important to look for a source of Scripture...What happens if you don't have and cannot obtain a Bible? What happens if you cannot read [illiterate]?
Are there not countries still today where it is illegal to own a Bible presuming that one could be found for sale? Aren't there still people today who are illiterate?Important to look for a source of Scripture...
Verse 1...'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.'Jesus does not enter until verse 14
Why do you keep bringing up "His flesh"???? Had you read Micah 5:2 carefully and believingly, you would have seen that His INCARNATION (taking human form) was in Bethlehem, but He existed as God the Word (the only begotten Son of God) from EVERLASTING (eternity past). It is pure unbelief to deny this.
Luke 3:38 New International Version (NIV)
38 the son of Enosh,
the son of Seth, the son of Adam,
the son of God.
Verse 1...'In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.'
The Son is eternal.The Word did not incarnate and become Jesus Christ until verse 14. The Word existed before this but not Jesus.
That's odd. It had never occurred to me that anyone would read the beginning of John and not come away with the understanding that John was speaking of Jesus...but I see it's so. Don't mean you are odd, just that the thought john wasn't speaking of Jesus is odd to me.
here we have a classic contridiction of the scriptures in trying to support a doctrine. the poster said, "in Isa 44:24 it is Christ Jesus who speaks as *the LORD*". and then states, "Granted that *alone* and *by myself* suggest that it is the eternal Word who is exclusively the Creator".The answer is in the OT phrase *the LORD*, which is actually YHWH (or YHVH) and is pronounced as Yahweh or Jehovah. This name is the name of the Godhead (Father, Son, and Holy Spirit) and in Isa 44:24 it is Christ Jesus who speaks as *the LORD*. He identifies Himself as (a)thy Redeemer and (b)the Creator.
Granted that *alone* and *by myself* suggest that it is the eternal Word who is exclusively the Creator. But in fact ELOHIM (plural) is the Creator, which means the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit were jointly involved in creation: In the beginning God [אֱלֹהִ֑ים ELOHIM] created the heaven and the earth. (Gen 1:1)
No you are in error is suggesting that there is only one person in the Godhead.so the post is in ERROR.
Yes, there is only one PERSON in the Godhead, and that only Person "diversified" himself in flesh.No you are in error is suggesting that there is only one person in the Godhead.
You can't separet out the cults doctrine. Every ex cult member I've heard the testimony of, has first questioned the doctrine and then sought answers as to who Jesus is.I don't believe you paid attention to what was said. I said, disregard the doctrine of the said Church. If a person was part of the Mormon or Roman or Seventh Day Adventist church, or Jehovah Witness, and wanted Christ as His Lord and Saviour, and prayed to God for that, how much doctrine are you requiring him to know about Jesus in order to be saved? How much did Jesus require of Peter?
Stranger