You do understand that was an altered version correct? Matter of fact it was done deliberately as the same translators rendered it a god at Acts 28:6. Why do you suppose they did that K?
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"Death" does not mean "cease to exist".
I did not say God is evil. Stop lying!
I'll stick with what Jesus taught.
Matthew 25:41 (NKJV)
41 Then He will also say to those on the left hand, 'Depart from Me, you cursed, into the everlasting fire prepared for the devil and his angels:
Revelation 20:10 (NKJV)
10 The devil, who deceived them, was cast into the lake of fire and brimstone where the beast and the false prophet are. And they will be tormented day and night forever and ever.
I'll never deny that it was The Only Begotten Son of God who The Only True God sent to the world of mankind. It was the Only Begotten Son of God who became human like the first man Adam not God. John 3:16 tells us that The True God loved the World of mankind so much that he sent his Only Begotten Son to the world of mankind so that whoever exercises faith in him will not perish but have eternal life.
So then what about this part where, He humbled Himself, and, He took the form of a servant, and, He made Himself of no reputation?
Who did those things, and when did He do them?
Much love!
Jesus submitted to John's baptism, which was a baptism for the remission of sins.
Mark 1:4 "John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins."
Even John recognized this baptism didn't apply to Jesus.
Matthew 3:13-15 KJV
13) Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him.
14) But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me?
15) And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him.
In submitting to John's baptism, Jesus fulfilled righteousness. At this point we can only speculate exactly what that may mean, and how Jesus being baptized fulfills righteousness.
If we stay with that the Bible tells us, that's what this baptism was.
My thinking on this is that when Jesus was baptized in a baptism of repentance for the remission of sins, though He had no sins, He began the work that would produce what is written here:
2 Corinthians 5:21 KJV
For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
Jesus, though having now sin, was baptized unto repentance and remission of sins, fulfilling righteousness.
There is nothing in the Bible about a "baptism of annointing". Though certainly God told John that the Christ would be the One upon Whom the Holy Spirit rested. God used that time as an opportunity to announce through the visible descent of the Holy Spirit, and His voice speaking from heaven, that Jesus is His Son.
Much love!
You know Wrangler that verse is to me the strangest verse in the Bible, It actually said Jehovah our God is one Jehovah, isn't that strange sir. I could understand Jehovah our God is one God, but the Bible definitely should be translated as it appeared, we certainly wouldn't want to be the one to alter it.
He is God the Son....
The only begotten Son of God the Father....
And I personally believe they are distinct and separate of one another.
One reason for Satan's fall was his jealousy over Jesus and God's creation. .....and his pride.
Satan is jealous of Jesus:
Hebrews 1:4. Being made so much better than the angels, as he has by inheritance obtained a more excellent name than they. (meaning the angels)
5) For unto which of the angels said he at any time, You are my Son, this day I have begotten you? And again, I will be to him a Father, and he shall be to me a Son? (KJV)
What we’re being told is this was never ever told to the angels.
6) And again, when he brings in the first begotten into the world, he says, And let all the angels of God worship him. (KJV)
If Satan wanted to exalt himself, this was something he could not stand and he could not stomach.
13) But to which of the angels said he at any time, “Sit on my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool?” (KJV)
1. The punishment of eternal fire, is, in my understanding, spiritual fire (baptism of fire, perhaps used to purify the souls of Levites?). I do not believe in the eternal punishment of fire. God led me to this truth through my Strongest NIV concordance years ago, though it took some time to find it.
2. If God, who knows the end from the beginning, created billions of people, knowing many would burn in fire for eternity, but did so anyway, how would Hitler, Stalin, Mussolini, Mao, all of the fallen angels and demons, combined, be even a microscopic fraction as evil as Elohim?
3. A vision I had many years ago of God's glory had the golden rays tell me of God's eternal attributes, including His endless power that could destroy creation and recreate it in a second, if He wanted to. Obviously, He doesn't want to.
4. The above vision ended with our Father revealing His heart for me, to me. He knew everything I'd ever done, every secret I had, even everything I'd ever do, and yet He loved and accepted me unconditionally. Years before, He had planted John 3:16 in my heart. That's when I became a believer.
He loved me just the way I was, fortunately, He loved me too much to leave me that way. All the angels cry, "Holy!" Shalom.
Who was Jesus before He was born?Jesus as well as all spirit beings are superior to humans sir, to become a human would result in a reduction of stature. Jehovah also chose to put him in a lowly household. He had a great impressive reputation however, notice these accounts:
(Matthew 8:27) . . .men were amazed and said: “What sort of person is this? Even the winds and the sea obey him.”
(Matthew 9:33) . . .the crowds were amazed and said: “Never has anything like this been seen in Israel.”
(Matthew 22:22) . . .When they heard that, they were amazed, and they left him and went away.
(Mark 5:20) 20 This man went away and started to proclaim in the De·capʹo·lis all the things Jesus had done for him, and all the people were amazed.
Perhaps the most notorious Marks is this:
(Luke 2:42-47) . . .when he became twelve years old, . . . after three days they found him in the temple, sitting in the midst of the teachers and listening to them and questioning them. 47 But all those listening to him were in constant amazement at his understanding and his answers.
Even at the young age of 12, teachers in the temple was amazed by him.
You aren't addressing the Scripture which tells us what that baptism was. You are saying it was a "baptism of annointing", where to do find this in the Bible?The spirit of the dove was Jesus' anointing sir, all of those of the little flock will undergo the same baptism, through holy spirit, and in all of their cases the water baptism as well, but they are anointed through the holy spirit
(Acts 1:5) . . .John, indeed, baptized with water, but you will be baptized with holy spirit . . .
Who was Jesus before He was born?
Much love!
How was it that he humbled himself, and was found in fashion as a man? This presupposes a pre-existance.Like all of us men and women, non-existing, unbegotten. Why do you ask?
6) Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:
7) But made himself of no reputation, and took upon him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men:
Being in the form of God he took upon him the form of a servant
How was it that he humbled himself, and was found in fashion as a man? This presupposes a pre-existance.
That applies to all of us. We are all made in the image of God.
The only man I find any reference to pre-existence is Jesus. He is also the only one ever said to have concurrent terrestrial and celestial existence until after His resurrection, when we could become born of God. He was born of God to begin His terrestrial life.Supposition on top of supposition. Even if he pre-existed, it most certainly does not mean he is God incarnate.
Jesus is explicitly said to be a man - over and over again. Begotten like us all. Do all men pre-exist before taking human form?
The only man I find any reference to pre-existence is Jesus.
I'd question your suppostion here. What would make that true? Because it happens a certain way in one case, therefore it happens the same in all cases. I don't think that is valid logic.If he’s a man and pre-exists, then all men must also pre-exist. J