First of all - "Jehovah" is a word that was invented by a 13th century Spanish monk named Raymundo Martini. He took the Hebrew "YHVH" and added vowels due to the way it was pronounced in Hebrew ("Yaweh"). In Latin (later, English) English, it would be rendered as "JHVH" - and when he added an "e", "o" and "a", he got "Jehovah". In any case - it's NOT a Biblical word.
Secondly - 2 Peter 1:1 states:
"To those who have received a faith of the same kind as ours, by the righteousness of our God and Savior, Jesus Christ."
Here is the phrase in question, "our God and Savior, Jesus Christ in the Greek:
θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
According to the Granville Sharp's Rule - which is used by the majority of Biblical and Greek scholarship - this verse CANNOT be rendered as referring to ANYBODY other than Jesus Christ.
The Statement of the rule is as follows:
"When the copulative KAI connects two nouns of the same case, if the article HO or any of its cases precedes the first of the said nouns or participles, and is not repeated before the second noun or participle, the latter always relates to the same person that is expressed or described by the first noun or participle; i.e., it denotes a further description of the first-named person." (A Manual Of The Greek New Testament, Dana& Mantey, p. 147)
So, if you have you have two nouns, and they are NOT proper names (like Peter, or Paul, or John), which are describing a person, and the two nouns are connected by the word "and", and the first noun has the article "the", while the second does NOT - this means that BOTH nouns are referring to the SAME person.