ChristisGod
Well-Known Member
2 Peter 1:1If the verse in Titus or 2 Peter said "our great friend Paul and Matthew" would you think it was speaking about the same person? I think not. It seems you see what you want to here and not what is meant. It could be two different people or the same one I guess if that's what you believe going in. I don't see how anyone looking at scripture could believe that Jesus, God and HS are one person unless they were like atheists who came up with an idea and then tried to find a reason for it.
Jesus in John 17:3 said that his Father was the only true God. Col. 1:15 it says Jesus "is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation. If something is the image of something it can not be the thing it is the image of and firstborn of all creation means he was created. Mat. 24:36, 37 says “But concerning that day and hour no one knows, not even the angels of heaven, nor the Son, but the Father only." If Jesus was God he would have known I guess. There are many other scriptures that show Jesus wan not God.
τοῦ θεοῦ ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
2 Peter 1:11
τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν καὶ σωτῆρος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ
2 Peter 1:1
our God and Savior, Jesus Christ
2 Peter 1:11
our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ
We have a second person possessive pronoun "Our" modifying two different improper nouns (God and Savior) joined by "and" (Kia) to identify a proper noun (Jesus) [Granville/Sharp's]. Therefore, by basic grammar, we are identifying Jesus as God and Savior. We don't even have to know the Greek to see that Jesus is being called both God and Savior/ Lord and Savior in Peters 2nd Epistle. 2 Peter 2:20 and 2 Peter 3:18 also have the same Greek construction as 1:1 and 1:11.
But for those interested in the Greek here is the comparison of 1:1 and 1:11.
τοῦ is the same.
ἡμῶν is the same.
καὶ is the same.
Σωτῆρος is the same.
Ἰησοῦ is the same.
Χριστοῦ· is the same.
And all in the same order.
The only difference is the noun "Θεοῦ" in v.1, while "Κυρίου" is in v.11.
So if he wants to deny that Jesus is "God" ("theou") in v.1, then he has to deny that Jesus is "Lord" ("kuriou") in v.11. Otherwise he's being inconsistent and dishonest with the text. To say otherwise is proof positive one has an agenda when reading scripture and using eisegesis rather than exegesis of the biblical text in question.
hope this helps !!!