It should be clear that YHWH is the "Lord" (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21, 2 Corinthians 6:17-18) and that He is speaking to Himself as He is incarnated in Psalms 110:1.
YHWH said to my Lord...
There is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5)...that is, YHWH (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21, 2 Corinthians 6:17-18).
So, it does bear out that YHWH said to my YHWH when you consider that there is one Lord; even YHWH.
The first thing I noticed was that you capitalized the “L” when you wrote, “YHWH said to my Lord”. That’s the error that NASB acknowledged and agreed to correct. “Lord” is the standard English rendering of the Hebrew word
adonai. The Hebrew word in Psalm 110:1 isn’t
adonai. Anyone who can read vowelled Hebrew knows that. The standard English rendering of the Hebrew word
adoni, the word which is actually used in 110:1, is small “l,” “lord”. You can verify it for yourself. I have a post in this thread which identifies all 195 occurrences of the Hebrew word
adoni.
Your argument doesn’t move me because it violates the standard English translation convention and, in doing so, misrepresents what is actually written in the Hebrew text.
An example I’ve used in the classroom is to write two English words on the blackboard. The first word is “moose” and the second word is “mouse”. The difference is in a single vowel difference. Everyone who can read English can see this and knows the difference between the two. If I write in Hebrew “There’s a mouse in the house. Get it out!” and you translate it back into English as “There’s a moose in the house. Get it out!” then you’ve misrepresented the word that was written and given your readers an incorrect understanding of the message that was being delivered by me.
The next thing that I noticed is your assertion that YHWH is speaking to himself. Some trinitarians believe the Trinity (YHWH) is 1 self. Other trinitarians believe the Trinity is 3 selfs. Rarely do I come across trinitarians who say they don’t know how many selfs the Trinity is. Of late, there has been a reluctance of trinitarians on these forums to say how many selfs they believe the Trinity is. How many selfs do you believe the Trinity is?
The third item that sprang from your post is your assertion that “He is incarnated in the Psalm”. What does that mean? Trinitarianism teaches us that the second person of the Trinity is a one-time event, which occurred in the 1st century, and is revealed to us for the first time in the prologue of John’s Gospel. It sounds to me like your either saying that it wasn’t the one-time event trinitarianism says it is. Did David reveal it, which trinitarianism doesn’t suggest, or did John?
Trinitarian pop quiz. Where do we find the incarnation in the Bible? Trinitarian answer, John 1. Trinitarian student credited for correct answer.
The fourth item caused me to ask an obvious question: why David didn’t just go ahead and actually write “YHWH says to my YHWH”? It’s well within his writing skill to do so if that’s what he had in mind.
The fifth and final thing that came to mind is another question: why did David refer to the speaker in the Psalm by using his personal / proper name (“YHWH”) without calling him “my YHWH” and to the person spoken to in the Psalm without using his or any personal / proper name, but instead using a title - and a non-deity title at that - if he was actually saying “my YHWH”? That’s complicated, but it’s what you presented me with.
Let me simplify it by ignoring the technical language details.
The speaker (YHWH) isn’t David’s “my YHWH” but the one whom YHWH spoke to is, you say, David’s “my YHWH”. Why aren’t both the speaker and the one spoken to David’s “my YHWH”?
“My YHWH says to my YHWH …” bears no resemblance whatsoever to what is written by David in the text.