Well done Nomad!
Who would have thought you would be the first to introduce an expert to our discussion.
Thus far we have a trinitarian who denies the Nicene creed; and now an apologist who supports his teaching by the wisdom of another Apologist and scholar with yet another book!
All 224 pages for only $10.99.
One thing is for sure Nomad, when Jesus Christ returns the Trinity and the many books Will be Forgotten.
Yes nomad, bring on Acts 19:19KJV and let us together stand around the fire and celebrate the pure untouched Word of Life uncorrupted by the creeds of men and their scholarly ways.
Insight
Consulting the works of 3 Koine Greek experts on the meaning of an important Greek word is the proper method of exegesis for the examination of any text. That's how it's done Insight. If you want to know the meaning of a word, you look it up. Your constant mockery of everyone participating in this thread simply demonstrates the bankruptcy of your position.
Would you like to exaplain
how those two "forms" dwelt together simultaneously?
Reconcile
1 Tim 6:16 with Jesus dwelling in Sins Flesh
2 Cor 5:21
We don't need to know
how Insight. What matters is that the Bible very plainly says that they
did dwell together. That should be enough for you. The notion that something can't be true if it can't be completely understood is arrogant to say the least.
Now to answer your question. Christ himself was not a sinner. He was "made sin" on the cross by
imputation. He did not die for his own sins. He died for the sins of others. This doesn't mean he became a sinner. It means that our sins were imputed to him as our representative in order to suffer for them. Likewise, we are justified before God by the
imputation of Christ's righteousness, not our own. Read your own proof-text. Remember the role of the scapegoat in the Mosaic sacrificial system? Hands were placed on a goat representing the transfer of Israel's guilt to that goat. Did that goat commit any of those sins? No, of course not, but that guilt was reckoned to his account. This is guilt by
imputation and God accepted this substitutionary atonement just like he accepted all of the substitutes of Old Covenant sacrifices. Those sacrifices prefigured the atoning work of Christ.
Now back to the main point. Does Scripture tell us that God became man. It sure does.
Joh 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. . .
Joh 1:14 . . .And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us, and we have seen his glory, glory as of the only Son from the Father, full of grace and truth.
Php 2:6 who, though he was in the form of God, did not count equality with God a thing to be grasped,
Php 2:7 but made himself nothing, taking the form of a servant, being born in the likeness of men.
Php 2:8 And being found in human form, he humbled himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross.
There it is. God became man and died for sin.
