Have you ever read Exodus 3:13-15 in the Jewish Tanakh? It doesn't say what you think it does. Let me show you....
What name was Moses to tell Israel ?
"13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?" | | יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם: |
14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'" | | ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם: |
15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation."
Complete Tanakh
"The LORD God there is Yahweh. (יְהֹוָ֞ה) "I Am" makes no sense here because Moses was not telling them about the existence of a God that they didn't know. They knew their origins and they knew that their God's name was Yahweh. But you see that "I Am" is not how the meaning of God's name is rendered in the Jewish Tanakh. "I will be what I will be" indicated to Israel what Yahweh would be to them in the future. Whatever he needed to "be" to accomplish his purpose in connection with them, that is what he would prove to be.
Exodus 3:15 has nothing to do with John 8:58. Its just a clever twist of scripture to promote what Christ never taught. | | טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר: |
No, I'm sorry but that's the story told in Christendom....it isn't true.
The Pharisees were asking him about how he was not yet 50 years old and yet he had seen Abraham, not whether he was claiming to be God.
He answered them by saying that he existed before Abraham, which was correct...he came down from heaven, but nowhere does it say he was God incarnate. It was "the Word" (God's Logos") who became flesh, not God. The Word was "with" GOD.....and the Word was divine.
In Greek, John 1:1 does not say what is translated into English by those wanting to promote their false doctrine.
And if you look up the word "theos" in Greek you will see that Thomas was not calling Jesus "God" (capital "G") because that word relates to any divinely authorized person.....to God's son, to angels, and to human judges.
As an apostle, would Thomas have disagreed with what they, as the body of Christ were taught by Jesus himself?
Paul, in speaking in behalf of all the apostles said....
"For even though there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God, the Father, from whom all things are and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are and we through him."
There you have a direct statement....there is "one God, the Father" AND "one Lord Jesus Christ". The
two are not one God, let alone three.
You really have swallowed the devil's counterfeit religion whole-heartedly, haven't you? Its a shame really...I see such conviction in what you say, and I know its sincere, but I also know you have never really studied what you have been led to believe......if you had, then you may well have come to a very different conclusion about a lot of things.
Perhaps some original language word studies would be in order....?