The Bible say that Joseph did not have marital relations with Mary (his wife) until after she had given birth to Jesus. (Matt 1:24-25)
You claim that Scripture plainly states in Matt. 1:25 that Joseph and Mary didn't have intercourse and more children
until after Mary gave birth to Jesus, but it doesn't; rather, it states they didn't have intercourse "
until she brought forth her firstborn son." The word "
until" has multiple definitions, not only the one you're inferring by your
insertion of the word "
after".
For the sake of argument, say the word "
until" was used to mean Joseph and Mary had intercourse after Jesus's birth, that in itself wouldn't prove Mary bore more children because, for example, having vaginal intercourse doesn't lead to procreation for some men and women. Sometimes the woman is barren or the man is sterile, etc. Your interpretation that the gospel writer, after writing about the long-anticipated messianic prophecy coming to fruition, basically threw in the tidbit, "After the birth of the Savior, Joseph had intercourse with Mary and 6+ more kids" at the end is quite random. It also isn't in line with the context of Matt. 1:20-25:
"But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared to him in his sleep, saying: Joseph, son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife, for that which is
conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost. And
she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name Jesus. For
he shall save his people from their sins. Now all this was done that it might be fulfilled that which the Lord spoke by the prophet, saying: Behold,
a virgin shall be with child and
bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us. And Joseph, rising up from sleep, did as the angel of the Lord had commanded him, and took to him his wife.
And he knew her not until she brought forth her firstborn son, and he called his name Jesus."
The context of Matt. 1:25 is Joseph's accepting as his spouse
the virgin who
conceived the Savior of mankind
by the Holy Spirit. The gospel writer concludes the passage by stating that Joseph didn't have intercourse with Mary until Jesus's birth,
to dispel any belief that he was the father. In other words, since the gospel writer's intent at the end was to show what Joseph
didn't do until a certain point, so as to dispel any belief that Jesus was conceived by him, and not begotten by the Holy Spirit, they stated he remained chaste until Jesus's birth. Why would implying Joseph had or didn't have intercourse with Mary after Jesus's birth be relevant, when it's only about Jesus's paternal origin? It's not relevant, which is another reason why the definition of "
until" that you're applying doesn't fit here, but rather "up to the time that," because it informs us what Joseph
didn't do until a certain point, not what occurred after that point,
to dispel any belief that he was the father. The importance of Matt. 1:20-25 is that it primarily pertains to the messianic prophecy, not the sexual relationship, or lack thereof, between Joseph and Mary.
this could get interesting, a Catholic and a Jehovah's Witness in a throwdown.......
