Not what it says in Greek.....one little word changes the whole meaning of that verse and satan knows it.
You will not even see it unless you know what you’re looking at....
"Ἐν (In) ἀρχῇ (beginning) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (Word), καὶ (and) ὁ (the) λόγος (Word) ἦν (was) πρὸς τὸν (with) θεόν (God), καὶ (and) θεὸς (God) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (Word)..." (Jn. 1:1)
τὸν θεόν is “THE God” and this is how Yahweh is identified in Greek. The nameless God of the Jews was identified by the definite article (τὸν) and there is only one Yahweh in that verse. Whoever you are quoting has deliberately obscured this fact.
In Greek it reads “In the beginning was the Word (Jesus)......and the Word was with the God (Yahweh) and the Word was divine.
So then verse 14 says it was the Word who became flesh, not τὸν θεόν (Yahweh).
Run it through Google translate and see that it means “the God”....that is the way the Father is identified in the Greek scriptures. Jesus is identified as θεόν, which can apply to any divine personage or one authorised by God, as Jesus was.
In Jn. 1:1 we read,
"Ἐν (In) ἀρχῇ (beginning) ἦν (was) ὁ (the) λόγος (Word)..."
It doesn't only say "τὸν θεόν," but rather
"πρὸς τὸν θεόν" ("and
the Word was with God):"
"καὶ (
and) ὁ (
the) λόγος (
Word) ἦν (
was)
πρὸς τὸν (
with)
θεόν (
God),...
It doesn't say the Word was "divine," but rather "and
God was the Word:"
"καὶ (
and) θεὸς (
God) ἦν (
was) ὁ (
the) λόγος (
Word)..."
"
And the Word became flesh and dwelt among us"
"Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός, πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας." "Καὶ (
And) ὁ (
the) λόγος (
Word) σὰρξ (
flesh) ἐγένετο (
became) καὶ (
and) ἐσκήνωσεν (
dwelt) ἐν (
among) ἡμῖν (
us)..." (Jn. 1:14)
You agree Jesus is the Word Who became flesh (Jn. 1:14), the same Word identified as God in Jn. 1:1: "καὶ
θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος" (and
God was the Word), and thus Jesus was not only the Messiah, but
God Incarnate as well.
Since when does existing before Abraham make Jesus eternal? It simply means that he was in existence before Abraham was born...
Moses said to God that the children of Israel will ask the name of the one who sent him, then asked what name shall he tell them:
"Καὶ εἶπε Μωυσῆς πρὸς τὸν Θεὸν, ἰδοὺ ἐγὼ ἐξελεύσομαι πρὸς τοὺς υἱοὺς ᾿Ισραὴλ, καὶ ἐρῶ πρὸς αὐτοὺς, Θεὸς τῶν πατέρων ἡμῶν ἀπέσταλκέ με πρὸς ὑμᾶς: ἐρωτήσουσί με, τί ὄνομα αὐτῷ; τί ἐρῶ. πρὸς αὐτούς; Καὶ εἶπεν ὁ Θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν, λέγων, ἐγώ εἰμι ὃ "Qu: (
I AM THE BEING): καὶ εἶπεν, οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ἰσραὴλ, ὁ Ὧν ἀπέσταλκέ με πρὸς ὑμᾶς (
say to the children of Israel THE BEING has sent me to you)." (Ex. 3:13-14)
In Jn. 8:58, first Jesus claimed to be eternal and to have existed
before Abraham, but more importantly, He called himself by the ancient title ascribed only to God Himself: "...πρὶν (
before) Ἀβραὰμ (
Abraham) γενέσθαι ἐγὼ (
I) εἰμί (
AM)." The Pharisees knew exactly what Jesus meant by this. From their perspective, Jesus said specifically, “I am God”. How do we know this was their interpretations of His words? We know it from their reaction. They responded by attempting to stone Jesus for claiming to be God (an act of blasphemy they considered worthy of death): "ἦραν (
picked) οὖν λίθους (
stones) ἵνα (
to) βάλωσιν (
throw) ἐπ' (
at) αὐτόν (
him): Ἰησοῦς δὲ ἐκρύβη καὶ ἐξῆλθεν ἐκ τοῦ ἱεροῦ," but He escaped them (Jn. 8:59).
Now,
how was Jesus existing
before Abraham was born? My answer is, as He's always existed: as the Word
with God (ὁ (
the) λόγος (
Word) ἦν (
was) πρὸς τὸν (
with) θεόν (
God), and at the same time also
as God (θεὸς (
God) ἦν (
was) ὁ (
the) λόγος (
Word) (Jn. 1:1), the
eternal God "Θεὸς αἰώνιος" (Gen. 21:33), and the Word became flesh and dwelt among us (Jn. 1:14).
The Jews answered him: “We are stoning you, not for a fine work, but for blasphemy; for you, although being a man, make yourself a god.” (theos) 34 Jesus answered them: “Is it not written in your Law, ‘I said: “You are gods”’? (theos) 35 If he called ‘gods’(theos) those against whom the word of God (ho theos) came—and yet the scripture cannot be nullified— 36 do you say to me whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You blaspheme,’ because I said, ‘I am God’s (ho theos) Son’? (John 10:31-36)
The son is never called “ho theos”.......only the Father is identified that way.
The Father and the Son are one. The Pharisees understood Jesus was calling Himself God, and they wanted to kill him for it, for they said: "ἀπεκρίθησαν αὐτῷ οἱ Ἰουδαῖοι, Περὶ καλοῦ ἔργου οὐ λιθάζομέν (
stone) σε (
you) ἀλλὰ περὶ (
for) βλασφημίας
(blasphemy), καὶ ὅτι σὺ ἄνθρωπος ὢν ποιεῖς (
making) σεαυτὸν (
yourself)
θεόν (
God)" (Jn. 10:33), and Jesus didn't deny it because He did.
And if you look up the word "theos" in Greek you will see that Thomas was not calling Jesus "God" (capital "G") because that word relates to any divinely authorized person...
"ἀπεκρίθη (
replied) Θωμᾶς (
Thomas) καὶ (and) εἶπεν (
saying) αὐτῷ (to), Ὁ κύριός (
Lord) μου (
my) καὶ (and) ὁ
θεός (
God) μου." (Jn. 20:28)
How does God give a part of himself to himself?
"πορευθέντες οὖν μαθητεύσατε πάντα τὰ ἔθνη, βαπτίζοντες (
baptizing) αὐτοὺς (
them) εἰς (
in) τὸ (
the) ὄνομα (
name) τοῦ (
of the) πατρὸς (
Father) καὶ (
and) τοῦ (
the) υἱοῦ (
Son) καὶ (
and) τοῦ (
the) ἁγίου (
Holy) πνεύματος
(Spirit)." (Matt. 28:19)
I suppose before I jump into explaining the Trinity: God's single and threefold nature, I should first ask, do you believe the name in which to baptize: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit, refers to God?