Does Satan run the world? Or does God?

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Rella ~ I am a woman

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Is this post your original work or is it from the referenced articles or other?

Very detailed. One of your paragraphs indicated what "suggests" is the Apostle Paul. I understood the evidence to be that way as well. Yet, I'm OK either way, the author being another John or "the" John. Not sure what difference - at this point - does it make, to quote Hillary? @3 Resurrections, can you explain; is this just esoteric or substantitive to the point of the OP?
Good morning Wrangler.

No... not my original work. As indicated at the beginning it came from


In truth... I had never given thought to JOHN being "the" John or some John Smith until such a study of the date of Rev and the Preterists interpretation entered into the mix.

I posted this article... just copied as is ... because I know that @3 Resurrections has maintained that we cannot know which John wrote it and also the suggestion of more then 1 authors.

So when I read from the link....

" Then in Revelation 1:9-10, John refers to himself as “I.”

I, John, your brother and fellow partaker in the tribulation and kingdom and perseverance which are in Jesus, was on the island called Patmos because of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus. I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like the sound of a trumpet . . . Revelation 1:9-10 (NASB)

Then John once again refers to himself as “I” in verse 10. In fact, he refers to himself as”I” in every chapter of the book of Revelation, except in chapters two and three where he quotes God as saying, “I”. In the last chapter, Revelation 22:8, John uses his name once again. That means John referred to himself by name in the first chapters and the last chapter and as “I” in between. The internal evidence states that John is the author of the entire book of Revelation."


I posted it to see where the fault is.

Certainly there is so much commentary on everything Revelation... so many opinions.... that to me it is great to
read where someone or organization has put in the effort to systematically say something.

I just finished reading what I will call an opinion piece... about Patmos.... and later today if I can I will post that
for all to see... So watch out for it. It will be under a new thread title.
 
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3 Resurrections

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But if we would assume that he had been banished by Domitian.. who was quite a tyrant to say the least... for we know Domitian, had shown great cruelty toward many, and having unjustly put to death no small number of well-born and notable men at Rome, and having without cause exiled and confiscated the property of a great many other illustrious men..
Morning Rella,
For this subject of Domitian being assumed to be the author of a great persecution against Christians, I would ask you to do a little research. Try looking at one of Dr. Kenneth Gentry's latest posts titled "Domitian's Persecution of Christians?" in his www.postmillennialworldview.com website. It is his March 5, 2024 post where he examines how this assumption grew from rather flimsy historical evidence.

As to who Revelation's author was, I certainly don't deny that a single man calling himself John wrote the entire book (no other authors allowed). I also believe he was an apostle, but NOT the martyred John son of Zebedee (one of the original twelve). Christ had predicted the martyrdom death of both John and James, sons of Zebedee (Matt. 20:20-23). We find James already executed in Acts 12:1-2. Do you really think that John the brother of James escaped his predicted martyrdom fate much longer than his brother?

John the author of Revelation was called a "fellow-servant" of the angelic messenger in Revelation 22:9, and he was a prophet, of course. But John was only one of the names by which the author of Revelation was known. His identity was the beloved, resurrected Lazarus (who was called John Eleazar in what is termed the "secret gospel of Mark"). John was like the messenger in Revelation giving him the visions because both of these men had experienced the bodily resurrection process.

Why do you think that the original edition of Foxes Book of Martyrs credited the author of Revelation with being unsuccessfully boiled in oil by the emperor's orders to the proconsul of Ephesus, and survived the process? A bodily-resurrected, glorified saint cannot be killed by any means whatsoever, and that is what the beloved disciple Lazarus (John Eleazar), the author of Revelation was.
I'm OK either way, the author being another John or "the" John. Not sure what difference - at this point - does it make, to quote Hillary? @3 Resurrections, can you explain; is this just esoteric or substantitive to the point of the OP?
There's not a single word in scripture that is insignificant. If Christ indicated that "the disciple whom Jesus loved" (Lazarus) would remain until He came (John 21:22), then we have two choices. Either the disciple whom Jesus loved is still here on earth today, or Christ returned in that first-century generation (as He said He would) and took that beloved, resurrected disciple with Him back to heaven along with all the other bodily-resurrected saints.

As to how this relates to the OP of Satan either running the world today or being destroyed by now, if we know when Revelation's prophecies were written, and by whom, then we can know that Satan's judgment and destruction has already been accomplished by Christ's second-coming return back in AD 70.
 
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Rella ~ I am a woman

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Morning Rella,
For this subject of Domitian being assumed to be the author of a great persecution against Christians, I would ask you to do a little research. Try looking at one of Dr. Kenneth Gentry's latest posts titled "Domitian's Persecution of Christians?" in his www.postmillennialworldview.com website. It is his March 5, 2024 post where he examines how this assumption grew from rather flimsy historical evidence.

As to who Revelation's author was, I certainly don't deny that a single man calling himself John wrote the entire book (no other authors allowed). I also believe he was an apostle, but NOT the martyred John son of Zebedee (one of the original twelve). Christ had predicted the martyrdom death of both John and James, sons of Zebedee (Matt. 20:20-23). We find James already executed in Acts 12:1-2. Do you really think that John the brother of James escaped his predicted martyrdom fate much longer than his brother?

John the author of Revelation was called a "fellow-servant" of the angelic messenger in Revelation 22:9, and he was a prophet, of course. But John was only one of the names by which the author of Revelation was known. His identity was the beloved, resurrected Lazarus (who was called John Eleazar in what is termed the "secret gospel of Mark"). John was like the messenger in Revelation giving him the visions because both of these men had experienced the bodily resurrection process.

Why do you think that the original edition of Foxes Book of Martyrs credited the author of Revelation with being unsuccessfully boiled in oil by Nero's orders to the proconsul of Ephesus, and survived the process? A bodily-resurrected, glorified saint cannot be killed by any means whatsoever, and that is what the beloved disciple Lazarus (John Eleazar), the author of Revelation was.

There's not a single word in scripture that is insignificant. If Christ indicated that "the disciple whom Jesus loved" (Lazarus) would remain until He came (John 21:22), then we have two choices. Either the disciple whom Jesus loved is still here on earth today, or Christ returned in that first-century generation (as He said He would) and took that beloved, resurrected disciple with Him back to heaven along with all the other bodily-resurrected saints.

As to how this relates to the OP of Satan either running the world today or being destroyed by now, if we know when Revelation's prophecies were written, and by whom, then we can know that Satan's judgment and destruction has already been accomplished by Christ's second-coming return back in AD 70.
Oh goodie... more homework....

I shall tackle later this afternoon.

The lack of possible banishment of John to Patmos is exactly why after reading Rev 1 for the 40th or 50th time
something new popped into my mind as I suggested in my question.

And almost doubly so if you have gotten to my new thread on Patmos.

"I, John, your brother and fellow partaker in the tribulation and kingdom and perseverance which are in Jesus, was on the island called Patmos because of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus."

There is no reference as to which tribulation is being referenced. As I said if Domitian or any of the other emperors were as suggested.. such tyrants... there would have been tribulation for all new Christians... and likely Jews to boot.


Anyway... Rev1:
10 I was in the Spirit on the Lord’s day, and I heard behind me a loud voice like the sound of a trumpet,

He was obviously in deep meditation when he heard....

As I said if he had been banished to Patmos why would he make the simple statement "was on the island called Patmos because of the word of God and the testimony of Jesus. ".......

Did he mean he was there because of his worship or because he needed to be there to receive the words of Rev from Jesus?


Later
 

Wrangler

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reading Rev 1 for the 40th or 50th time
No question, Revelation is the most difficult to discern book because of the figurative language used. I admire your persistence in data mining the text.

I've posted in numerous places that I tend to avoid End Times threads. This was not supposed to be that but what is the case right now. Frankly, I'm turned off by the many pre and post millennial threads filled with vitriol. Seen from the outside, nothing can be more obvious than we fail to love each other as Christ loved us.

That is what he commanded us to do. Yet somehow, we've managed to turn doctrine into an IDOL. Jesus never said "bash over the head anyone who had incorrect doctrine." Thank God there is not a doctrinal purity test to be saved.
 

Rella ~ I am a woman

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No question, Revelation is the most difficult to discern book because of the figurative language used. I admire your persistence in data mining the text.

I've posted in numerous places that I tend to avoid End Times threads. This was not supposed to be that but what is the case right now. Frankly, I'm turned off by the many pre and post millennial threads filled with vitriol. Seen from the outside, nothing can be more obvious than we fail to love each other as Christ loved us.

That is what he commanded us to do. Yet somehow, we've managed to turn doctrine into an IDOL. Jesus never said "bash over the head anyone who had incorrect doctrine." Thank God there is not a doctrinal purity test to be saved.
????? Am I bashing anyone's head?

If there is anyones head I would love to bash it would be the original authors that present what they clearly understood in such a way as to create confusion that started several hundred years ago when the 66 books were translated and then came so many versions of translation... all hinting at the same thing but just enough off that can make some question.

Fr myself I have had , I think, a healthy interest in all things end times coupled with eternal reward vs eternal punishment, and especially the latter where again no one agrees.

I cannot help but wonder if Revelation was written in Ad68 or 69 ... why? Why so close to AD70.

John was shown.. yada,yada... that through a millennia or two has been taught that this is what we are to expect when the time is at had for "the generation" of God's children.

But the preterist will assure us that Revelation was completed before the temple destruction of AD70.

And that would mean that Revelation was written before



John--A.D. 80-90
1 John--A.D. 90-95
2 John--A.D. 90-95
3 John--A.D. 90-95

An interesting answer though not conclusive by any means is


Raymond E. Brown says in An Introduction to the New Testament, page 164, there is wide scholarly agreement that Mark's Gospel was written in the late 60s or just after 70, and therefore the destruction of the temple was imminent or had already occurred. Burton L. Mack goes as far as to say, in Who Wrote the New Testament, page 152, it would not have made sense before the war had run its course and the tragic fate of the city was known. The prophecies in Mark chapter 13 are clearly of the First Roman-Jewish War and of the civil war that raged concurrently within the Jerusalem walls, but these prophecies were written with after the event. Had Jesus prophesied the destruction of the temple, he would have been correct, but this prophecy was followed by another prophecy that he would return on clouds of glory within the lifetimes of those to whom he spoke, an event that did not occur as prophesied. Since it is not possible for Jesus to make a prophecy that does not come true, these were not his prophecies and were actually written at the end of the War.

Most scholars now believe that Matthew and Luke were substantially derived from Mark's Gospel. In fact, John Dominic Crossan, in The Birth of Christianity, page 110-111, speaks of a massive consensus among scholars in favour of Markan priority. On this information we can say that the Gospels of Matthew and Luke, being written some time later than Mark, were certainly written after 70 CE. Acts of the Apostles was written some time after Luke, although it does not mention the destruction of the temple nor the Roman-Jewish War of 66-70.

John's Gospel is generally dated 80-110 CE, although critical scholars, who see it as influenced by Luke's Gospel, would place in towards the later end of this range. The three Johannine epistles were written shortly after the Gospel.

Thirteen epistles have been attributed to the apostle Paul: Romans, 1 Corinthians, 2 Corinthians, Philemon, Galatians, Philippians and 1 Thessalonians, but five of these are regarded as disputed. Paul's genuine epistles were, of course, written before 70 CE. Known to critical scholars as pseudo-Pauline epistles, Ephesians, Colossians, 2 Thessalonians, 1 Timothy, 2 Timothy and Titus are thought to have been written between 70 Ce and the first half of the second century.

Critical scholars place the First Epistle of Peter no earlier than 80 CE, and the Epistle of Jude and the Second Epistle of Peter in the first half of the second century. Jude, perhaps carelessly, self-identifies as written long after the apostolic era, while scholars have noted that 2 Peter uses material from the earlier Epistle of Jude.

So I am going to stop listing links of when the New Testament may have been written and I will suggest this.

If by two sources...
John--A.D. 80-90
1 John--A.D. 90-95
2 John--A.D. 90-95
3 John--A.D. 90-95

And the third....
John's Gospel is generally dated 80-110 CE,

If these are factual... then they were written after AD 70.... and there is no mewwntion of the temple destruction in any of them.... which you would think there should have been a comment... especially if Jesus had come then as the Preterist claim.

Okay bored you enough.... thanks for your ear.

Have a blessed and safe great day.
 
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Wrangler

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Rella ~ I am a woman

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Not that I see.

For the life of me, I cannot grasp why the concern over the precision such things. What difference does it make if John wrote it in 68, 69 or 70 AD?
Because it is claimed that Revelation was the foretelling of Jesus' return, and demise ... if you wil... of Satan so he is no longer here with us.

If it was written in 95 or 96 then that would indicate future.... and something we all are looking forward to....???

Preterists teach the second coming of Jesus Christ occurred in A.D. 70 when the temple in Jerusalem was destroyed. They say Christ did not come in a literal sense but in a spiritual sense. They state that Flavius Josephus provides supporting evidence that Christ returned in A.D. 70.

Of course.. if he came in a spiritual sense then that to me blows the idea of Christs second coming out of the water because... Jesus said "“And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the SON OF MAN COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF THE SKY with power and great glory." And that would not be seen if He came spiritually.

For me it is all about putting the pieces of a puzzle together... and Rev being written before AD70 does not fit, and I cannot accept Satan is not a problem today.
 

MatthewG

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Why would Jesus coming back, ever make you still not desire to have him in your life? Is my question. My personal belief is that Jesus has conquered all things, and by and through him, we allow him to conquer over our own selfish will and way.
 

Rella ~ I am a woman

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I never heard anyone assert that. I always took the 2nd Coming with the end of the world as we know it.
My belief also... but here iss an extensive.. understandable... ttoo long to post link


This is a link from an article from our opwn @JBO favorite theologian.


Last link for today


While there is a partial variety of preterism that finds more agreement with much of evangelical theology, full preterism is the position that all biblical prophecy has been fulfilled: the coming of Christ in judgment was fulfilled in the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70, Satan and Antichrist have been thrown into the lake of fire, the kingdom of God has arrived, the resurrection is understood in spiritual terms, the Great Commission has been fulfilled, all things have been made new (the old heaven and earth have passed away; the new heaven and earth have come), the promised restoration has arrived, and the world now continues as it is ad infinitum.
 
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3 Resurrections

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I cannot help but wonder if Revelation was written in Ad68 or 69 ... why? Why so close to AD70.
You're right - that AD 68 or 69 year is much too close to AD 70 for Revelation's composition. There would be no time for John's letters to circulate among the churches and the believers, warning of an approaching period of disasters of which most were already past at that point. As I've said before, it would be similar to giving a warning of oncoming icebergs to a sinking Titanic.

Those faithful ones in Smyrna were warned about the things which they were "ABOUT TO suffer". Satan was "ABOUT TO throw some of you into prison" at that point in time, when they would receive persecution for "ten days" (probably symbolic for ten years, from AD 60 until AD 70).
Of course.. if he came in a spiritual sense then that to me blows the idea of Christs second coming out of the water because... Jesus said "“And then the sign of the Son of Man will appear in the sky, and then all the tribes of the earth will mourn, and they will see the SON OF MAN COMING ON THE CLOUDS OF THE SKY with power and great glory." And that would not be seen if He came spiritually.
It was NOT Christ's coming in only a spiritual sense. Quite literally, the returning Christ bodily stood on the Mount of Olives and gathered all the resurrected saints to Himself and returned to heaven with them in AD 70. "I will come again, and receive you unto myself, that where I am, there ye may be also" tells us quite plainly that on this occasion of Christ's bodily return, that He would not be remaining on the earth at that time. And this happened in AD 70 on that 1,335th day of a resurrection predicted by Daniel12:11-13, following those two particular prophesied events (which happened in AD 66).

You don't want to believe that Satan has already been destroyed? Just thinking so does not make this so. Christ and the scriptures provided us proof of Satan's destruction, along with his entire demonic realm, and when God would do this. If you choose not to believe those scriptures, that is unfortunate. The RCC (which I know you have no use for) has used the fear of this Satanic realm to their own advantage. There is nothing like fear of the spirit world to keep control over people, and to keep the funds flowing into the coffers of those holding that power.
 

Rella ~ I am a woman

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Why would Jesus coming back, ever make you still not desire to have him in your life? Is my question. My personal belief is that Jesus has conquered all things, and by and through him, we allow him to conquer over our own selfish will and way.
On a selfish note... I missed the "Come up hither?"

Everything that was prophesied in the Olivet discourse did not happen when the Temple was destroyed.

But I know you are firm in your beliefs and I am not trying to change that... I promise.
 

3 Resurrections

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I never heard anyone assert that. I always took the 2nd Coming with the end of the world as we know it.
The scriptures themselves and Christ's own testimony assert that His second coming would take place before the generation of those He spoke to during his earthly ministry had all died (Matthew 16:27-28). Just because we are presently in the NHNE does not mean that fallen mankind's history has ended on this planet yet. That will not be for another one thousand and nine years to come. Sinners still exist outside the open gates of the New Jerusalem (Rev. 22:15), and there is still "healing of the nations" (Rev. 22:2) that needs to be accomplished by the kingdom of God's influence in this world.
 

Rella ~ I am a woman

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You're right - that AD 68 or 69 year is much too close to AD 70 for Revelation's composition. There would be no time for John's letters to circulate among the churches and the believers, warning of an approaching period of disasters of which most were already past at that point. As I've said before, it would be similar to giving a warning of oncoming icebergs to a sinking Titanic.

Those faithful ones in Smyrna were warned about the things which they were "ABOUT TO suffer". Satan was "ABOUT TO throw some of you into prison" at that point in time, when they would receive persecution for "ten days" (probably symbolic for ten years, from AD 60 until AD 70).

It was NOT Christ's coming in only a spiritual sense. Quite literally, the returning Christ bodily stood on the Mount of Olives and gathered all the resurrected saints to Himself and returned to heaven with them in AD 70. "I will come again, and receive you unto myself, that where I am, there ye may be also" tells us quite plainly that on this occasion of Christ's bodily return, that He would not be remaining on the earth at that time.
NO HE DID NOT. And all your "proofs" in the way you interpret scripture wont make it true.

But he is coming again.... that is fact.
And this happened in AD 70 on that 1,335th day of a resurrection predicted by Daniel12:11-13, following those two particular prophesied events (which happened in AD 66).

Funny that... With all the centuries of missing dates and counting numbers of days in a month and suchit still remains that the timing of 70AD is highly questionable. Did I not post the link to the one that says it was either AD 68, AD 69 or AD70?

Just incase read the entire link here:


Based on the above, we can now understand why the year of the destruction of the Temple is variously given as 3828 (68 CE), 3829 (69 CE) and 3830 (70 CE).

May we merit the rebuilding of the Holy Temple speedily in our days.

Year of Destruction​

TEMPLE DESTROYED IN ITSCOUNTING FROM CREATION OF MANCOUNTING FROM CREATION OF WORLD
Rashi on Avodah Zarah and Maimonides420th year3828 (68 CE)3829 (69 CE)
Tosafot and most other commentaries421st year3829 (69 CE)3830 (70 CE)

Funny that.... funny if it was a year or two earlier gets closer to when I claim and we have argued Jesus' actual crucifixion....
You don't want to believe that Satan has already been destroyed?

I do not. Not with what we are facing this day that when you and I were kids did not have what the kids of today do. If it is not Satan... and just the permissions of the heavenly Father.... WOW
Just thinking so does not make this so. Christ and the scriptures provided us proof of Satan's destruction, along with his entire demonic realm, and when God would do this. If you choose not to believe those scriptures, that is unfortunate. The RCC (which I know you have no use for) has used the fear of this Satanic realm to their own advantage. There is nothing like fear of the spirit world to keep control over people, and to keep the funds flowing into the coffers of those holding that power.
Yet they have failed...... so if you are right we are back to " just the permissions of the heavenly Father."
 

3 Resurrections

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And the third....
John's Gospel is generally dated 80-110 CE,
John's gospel was certainly written before AD 70. In John 5:2, it speaks of the Bethesda pool which still "IS" in existence along with its five porches. "Now there IS at Jerusalem by the sheep market a pool, which is called in the Hebrew tongue Bethesda, having five porches". As this gospel was being written, that sheep market for temple operations, as well as the Bethesda pool and its five porches, was still functioning. Once AD 70's destruction of Jerusalem down to the last stone had been accomplished, that sheep market and the pool of water were not in operation anymore. It took a modern-day excavation of the area to expose this location of where the sheep market and the pool of water once were.

There is much internal evidence in the NT writings which tells us that they were all composed prior to AD 70.
NO HE DID NOT. And all your "proofs" in the way you interpret scripture wont make it true.

But he is coming again.... that is fact.
I agree, it IS a fact - that's true. I've never denied a future coming bodily return of Christ. It's just that it will be a third coming, and not the second which Christ Himself said would occur before all of those He spoke to during His earthly ministry had died (Matthew 16:27-28).

I do not. Not with what we are facing this day that when you and I were kids did not have what the kids of today do. If it is not Satan... and just the permissions of the heavenly Father.... WOW
It does not take the presence of Satan in this world to explain the wickedness presently taking place. Christ already told us what is responsible for any wickedness. "For FROM WITHIN, OUT OF THE HEART OF MEN, proceed evil thoughts, adulteries, fornications, murders, Thefts, covetousness, wickedness, deceit, lasciviousness, an evil eye, blasphemy, price, foolishness. All these evil things come FROM WITHIN, and defile the man." (Mark 7:21-23). Do you read anywhere in this extensive list a mention of Satan directly causing any of this evil? Satan may have started the ball rolling for mankind's fall into sin in the Garden, but it doesn't take his continued existence for mankind to keep perpetuating all kinds of evil by themselves.
 
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MatthewG

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On a selfish note... I missed the "Come up hither?"

Everything that was prophesied in the Olivet discourse did not happen when the Temple was destroyed.

But I know you are firm in your beliefs and I am not trying to change that... I promise.

It's a joy to know that God lives in us, and that one day we hope to go be with him in the hereafter, where He resides, which is of course spiritual. It's fine that you see that I am firm in what has been stated prior. Thanks, Rella.
 

MatthewG

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When it comes to Satan, is that not just more of a title than a name. Many claim Lucifier is the name of Satan. However, I do not for some reason believe that is truly a mistranslation and also not a reference to anyone but a King 'concering how far one had fallen.' Then again I need to do my own research. It seems to me that Satan was an Agent that decided to go for the darkness instead of the light, and Satan as a title represents 'adversary' just a darkness is the adversary to light.
 

3 Resurrections

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When it comes to Satan, is that not just more of a title than a name. Many claim Lucifier is the name of Satan
Yes, Satan is a title and not a proper name. The name of Lucifer was alternately applied to both Christ and to the king of Babylon - not as mistakenly applied to the Devil.
 

Wrangler

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The scriptures themselves and Christ's own testimony assert that His second coming would take place before the generation of those He spoke to during his earthly ministry had all died (Matthew 16:27-28).
Let's take a look
7For the Son of Man is about to come with his angels in the glory of his Father, and then he will repay each person according to what he has done.
28Truly I say to you, there are some of those who are standing here who will absolutely not taste of death until they see the Son of Man coming in his kingdom.”

No reference to second coming. There's eisegesis, rearing its ugly head again!