M
Muna
Guest
Trinity extremists banned the use of made.![]()
Ok, that was sort of funny

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Trinity extremists banned the use of made.![]()

"Became."Trinity extremists banned the use of made.![]()
John was a Christian monotheist. He was Jewish only in the meaning of ethnicity.John is a Jewish monotheist.
No, that is your nonsensical invention. It is neither Christian nor Jewish theology.The Father created everything with Jesus in mind. That’s Jewish monotheism.
The Geneva Bible was a work of very strict Calvinists. Even though the rendering of John 1 is a bit different in there ("that" instead of "the" and similar), it does not support your so called "Jewish monotheism" in any way. The translators were Trinitarians.The difference between the two translations I was comparing is a bright one.
Was the world made through the earth or through Adam? Or The spiritual Adam?"Became."
Either way, the "image of God" is perfectly revealed.
I think the main topic of this thread is, somewhat ironically, discussing so-called 'Christians' or those who claim to be on this site, addressing non-Christians about salvation through the Son of God, the Christ of his Father, to all. What you mentioned is significant and relates to this theme, although sin and freedom from it are not the primary focus based on the comments I've seen so far in this thread.Jesus says,
John 8:34 Jesus answered them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Whosoever committeth sin is the servant of sin.
And again,
John 8:36 If the Son therefore shall make you free, ye shall be free indeed.
And here Paul says in the present
Rom 6:18 Being then made free from sin, ye became the servants of righteousness.
And Paul says in the past
Rom 6:20 For when ye were the servants of sin, ye were free from righteousness.
And Paul again says in the present
Rom 6:22 But now being made free from sin, and become servants to God, ye have
your fruit unto holiness, and the end everlasting life.
These appear to agree in the same theme of things
I also do not believe that the Son of God is the origin of divinity. Where in the scriptures is this stated? You need a strong argument for this, as Jesus never explained how or even if he had divinity like his Father. However, the Father's spirit did inhabit the Son's spirit, enabling him to have the qualities of his Father's divinity.You failed to notice Matthias denies the divinity of Jesus. How do you miss that when it is evident in the thread title.
You're defending error of immense proportions.
And we who call it out are of God and are following his direction.
"No one has ever yet seen God. The only begotten God, the One being in the bosom of the Father, He has made Him known."I also do not believe that the Son of God is the origin of divinity. Where in the scriptures is this stated?
The world is the revealing of the man of sin, created by God.Was the world made through the earth or through Adam? Or The spiritual Adam?
If spiritual Adam is Jesus Christ, why not made can't be use for him? LOL.
The spiritual Adam created the dust Adam then.....
That's odd..
When is an argument presented, particularly one that could impact lives, simply as a single statement that lacks context and understanding? Typically, the statement acts as an introduction to the main argument."No one has ever yet seen God. The only begotten God, the One being in the bosom of the Father, He has made Him known."
J 1:18
This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was he breaking the Sabbath,
but he was even calling God his own Father, making himself equal with God.
John 5:18
John was a Christian monotheist.
He was Jewish only in the meaning of ethnicity.
No, that is your nonsensical invention. It is neither Christian nor Jewish theology. See ideal preexistence.
The Geneva Bible was a work of very strict Calvinists. Even though the rendering of John 1 is a bit different in there ("that" instead of "the" and similar), it does not support your so called "Jewish monotheism" in any way. The translators were Trinitarians.
Anyway, you should verify your ideas in the Greek text. Cherry picking single pieces from various rarely used translations is obviously a sign of strong confirmation bias.
No, that is your nonsensical invention.
Hebrew elohim -> Greek theos -> English God, or god. Singular.
Hebrew elohim -> Greek theoi -> English gods. Plural.
“In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth.” True.
(Genesis 1:1)
The Hebrew word is elohim.
Hebrew elohim -> English God. Singular.
”In the beginning gods created the heavens and the earth.” False.
Hebrew elohim -> English gods. Plural.
The Hebrew word elohim is always plural in form. It isn’t always plural in meaning. In fact, it is almost always singular in meaning in the Bible.
Elohim isn’t the only Hebrew word which functions this way.
This is not scripture.
This is a dictionary that was put together by man.
Same God; Elohim
Then God said, “Let Us make man in Our image, according to Our likeness; let them have dominion...
Genesis 1:26
Elohim = Plural - The eternal Godhead.
It's basically wrong.
It’s the Messiah’s God. It’s the first line of the Apostles’ Creed. It’s scripture. It comes from the Hebrew Bible. It is the scripture of Jewish monotheists.
Why do you write “God” in the singular form rather than in the plural form?