If Jesus and the Father are equal persons and/or parts of a triune God, why would Jesus pray this prayer?
"That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me." John 17:21
Does this not then say that Jesus is praying that each of us may also be as he is with his Father? Would this then not would not make the Godhead a trinity, but multiplicity of Jesus, the Father, you, me and a multitude of others who are included in his prayer under the pronoun, "they"?
I don't believe that God is a multiplicity, but according to the way some trinitarians would explain their position that is the way it comes out, isn't it? Perhaps people should reconsider their belief.
"That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me." John 17:21
Does this not then say that Jesus is praying that each of us may also be as he is with his Father? Would this then not would not make the Godhead a trinity, but multiplicity of Jesus, the Father, you, me and a multitude of others who are included in his prayer under the pronoun, "they"?
I don't believe that God is a multiplicity, but according to the way some trinitarians would explain their position that is the way it comes out, isn't it? Perhaps people should reconsider their belief.