WRONG.
Scripture differentiates these things for us.
For example, Peter had a vision in Acts 10 and was told that the dietary Laws no longer applied.
The interpretation that YHWH gave Peter is in Acts 10:28;
Acts 10:28 And he said unto them, Ye know how that it is an unlawful thing for a man that is a Jew to keep company, or come unto one of another nation; but God hath shewed me that I should not call any man common or unclean.
You have given the vision a FALSE interpretation.
Similarly, Paul tells us in Col. 2:16 that we are not bound by dietary laws, festivals, New Moons or Sabbaths.
You say "not bound by", but Paul said, "Let no man judge you". Another FALSE interpretation.
In the Old Covenant - God NEVER gave His people Supreme Authority - that WHATEVER they ordained on earth would also be ordained in Heaven.
He DID do that with His Church (Matt. 16:18-19, Matt. 18:15-18, Luke 10:16, John 16:12-15, John 20:21-23).
Don't you ever read the verses you post? Not one of the passages/verses says believers have supreme authority to ordain.
is what
YOU said:
"Yes, Scripture is the written Word, but in the context of John 1 the "logos/word" is not the written Word which didn't exist in the "beginning" that is referred to."
This is complete
hogwash because God's Word is
ETERNAL.
Again you FAILED to read my words. I said the "WRITTEN WORD" did not exist.
are in heresy because you are in direct rebellion against HIS Word.
Virtually EVERY heresy begins with a misconception of the very nature of God - and YOU have that in spades . . .
I fully admit that I am directly rebelling against your interpretation of His Word.
Nope - THAT verse doesn't read that way, But, by denying anything He taught - you are denying HIM.
He taught that He is God - and that He and the Father are ONE. He went so far as to say that if you have seen HIM - you have seen the Father (John 14:9).
He NEVER taught that he was God. He ALWAYS taught that he was the Son of God. When he said, "the Father and I are one," he taught us exactly what he meant in John 17:11, 22. That believers are to be one IN THE EXACT SAME SENSE that he and his Father are one. That is NOT a oneness of being, but of purpose, beliefs, etc.
As for John 14:9, are you declaring the Son IS the Father???? Are you anti-trinitarian? Trinitarians do not believe the Father is the Son or vice versa. Yeshua meant that because he is the exact image of the Father, when you see him, you see the Father. They have the exact character, goals, beliefs, etc. If Yeshua is the Father, then John 6:46 is nonsense. The fact is, your interpretation is nonsense.
Jesus said to them, “Truly, truly, I say to you, before Abraham was, I AM (ego eimi).”
This is the SAME phrase that Yaweh told Moses from the Burning Bush.
It is also the SAME phrase the blind man used in John 9:9;
ἄλλοι ἔλεγον ὅτι οὗτός ἐστιν· ἄλλοι δὲ ὅτι ὅμοιος αὐτῷ ἐστιν. ἐκεῖνος ἔλεγεν ὅτι ἐγώ εἰμι.
YHWH did not write or speak Greek to Moses. However, in the Greek Septuagint, the full phrase is ego eimi o on (I am the being). If Yeshua wanted to tell the Jews he was the great "I AM" of Exodus 3:14, he would have said, "I am the being".
Exo 3:14 καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς Μωυσῆν Ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν· καὶ εἶπεν Οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς υἱοῖς Ισραηλ Ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς. LXX
Exo 3:14 And God spoke to Moses, saying, I am THE BEING; and he said, Thus shall ye say to the children of Israel, THE BEING has sent me to you. Brenton's translation of LXX
Exo 3:14 And God said unto Moses, I AM THAT I AM: and he said, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, I AM hath sent me unto you.
As you can see, it is the latter part of the phrase that matters in Greek.
The Son ALWAYS was in Heaven.
He was named "Jesus" or "Yeshua" on earth - but He ALWAYS existed.
Prior to his earthly birth, he existed in the mind/plan of YHWH, not as a literal living being.
That's a pretty desperate reach.
In that sense - God was ALWAYS "with" us because He is omnipresent.
We read in the NT that God was "with" and "in" Yeshua. We never read that He "was" or "is" Yeshua. That concept does not exist in Scripture. Only in the creeds of men.
No - the Incarnation shows that God Himself took on human form and dwelt among us (John 1:14).
EVERYTHING was created through Him - and without Him NOTHING was made (John 1:3).
Yes, if you choose to read Yeshua into the text. The "logos" was not a living being prior to Yeshua's conception. It was a thing; the Father's spoken words and thoughts including His plan of salvation. Major translations prior to the KJV make that clear. For example, Tyndale's translation, from which we get most of our KJV, reads as follows;
John 1:1 In the beginnynge was the worde and the worde was with God: and the worde was God. (Notice "worde" is not capitalized)
John 1:2 The same was in the beginnynge with God.
John 1:3 All thinges were made by it and with out it was made nothinge that was made. ("it", not "him")
John 1:4 In it was lyfe and the lyfe was ye lyght of men
Tyndale, The Great Bible, The Geneva Bible, The Bishop's Bible, and several others all translate the passage similarly.