Your theory is that without the manifestation of tongues, there is no New Birth and no gift of the Holy Spirit. But Acts chapter 2 DISPROVES what you have said. Not one of those three thousands souls was said to have spoken in tongues, yet all of them received the gift of the Holy Ghost. THAT WAS A GUARANTEE to those who repented and believed on the Lord Jesus Christ.
THIS VERSE SPEAKS OF WATER BAPTISM: Then they that gladly received his word were baptized: and the same day there were added unto them about three thousand souls. (v 41)
So you are in fact promoting a false doctrine which says that (1) water baptism is for the remission of sins and (2) the gift of the Holy Ghost must be seen as manifested in tongues.
Water baptism is for the remission of sins. John the baptists' baptism was the precursor.
Now let's address speaking in tongues. Here are the scriptures which specifically state they received the Holy Ghost speaking in tongues:
Acts 2:4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance.
Acts 10:45 And they of the circumcision which believed were astonished, as many as came with Peter, because that on the Gentiles also was poured out the gift of the Holy Ghost. [46] For they heard them speak with tongues, and magnify God. Then answered Peter,
Acts 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
Jesus said to Nicodemus in John Chapter Three (KJV)
7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born again.
8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the Spirit.
According to Jesus in Verse 8 (above) just as there is a "sound" associated (or present) with the wind, likewise, there is a "sound" associated (present) when EVERYONE is born of the Spirit.
My question is, What is the SOUND to which Jesus referred?
The preponderance of Scriptural evidence proves to be "Speaking in Tongues as the Spirit of God gives utterance."
By the way, in the settings where it does NOT say one way or the other whether or not they spoke in Tongues should NOT be used to insist they did NOT. Instead, it just doesn't say. I've never had anyone to present Scripture that says someone received the Holy Ghost but did NOT speak in Tongues. If you have any such scripture I would be happy to look at it.
Last edited: