Do Catholics Talk to Dead People?

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friend of

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The Scriptures say God is the God of the living not the dead

God is God of all. Everything in the world belongs to God who created all things. That passage is speaking about those that are spiritually alive versus the spiritually dead. To the spiritually dead, God is not their father and will not have communion with them, for they are rejected of Him. He will not be there God the sense that He will not advocate on their behalf nor admit them in close relationship with Himself. But He is still God overall, is He not? All souls belong to Him and He may do whatever He chooses with them. He is the judge.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Jesus's resurrected body was his glorified flesh. He told His apostles that He was NOT a spirit - bur flesh.
Spirit's don't eat - Jesus DID.
Luke 24:38-39
And he said to them, “Why are you troubled, and why do doubts arise in your hearts? See my hands and my feet, that it is I myself. Touch me, and see. For a spirit does not have flesh and bones as you see that I have.” And when he had said this, he showed them his hands and his feet. And while they still disbelieved for joy and were marveling, he said to them, “Have you anything here to eat?” They gave him a piece of broiled fish, and HE TOOK IT AND ATE BEFORE THEM.

As for what a “soul” is – you are correct about the OT usage. The NT Greek usage, however, is starkly different.
Whereas the Hebrew term “nepes” was largely used to describe carnal life in the OT, it was also largely a poetic term.

The Greek word, “psyche” is used to describe carnal life AND spiritual life.
For example, take, take Matt. 10:28, which says:
"Do not be afraid of those who kill the body (so’mah) but cannot kill the SOUL (psyche). Rather, be afraid of the One who can destroy both SOUL and body in hell."

At 1Peter 3:18,19 in this Greek text the words “flesh” and “spirit” are put in contrast to each other, and both are in the dative case; so, if a translator uses the rendering “by the spirit” he should also consistently say “by the flesh,” or if he uses “in the flesh” he should also say “in the spirit.” So Jesus was resurrected a spiritual being which is a body it's just not a fleshly body that's why the romans Guards didn't see Jesus but they saw the. Did Jesus as a spiritual being have the ability to manifest himself with a fleshly body that looked human when he appeared to his Apostles and disciples, yes! So at Luke 24:38,39 when Jesus appeared to his Apostles looking like he was human he wasn't in his natural state which is a spirit. Angels in the past in the OT when God sent an Angel to one of his faithful servants or prophets they appeared as though they were human but they only looked human.

The scripture Matthew 10:28 that you quoted, According to your belief, unless I misunderstood you, you don't believe the body goes to hell. This scripture is simply telling Jesus Apostles and Disciples not to be afraid of those in which the worst they can do is kill you but then it's out of their hands because those men can't judge on rather you will get a resurrection or not, that's Gods business. So as long as a disciple of Jesus is faithful he/she will get a resurrection. However if one is unfaithful Jesus has been given the authority and the ability to destroy you completely out of existence because just as the fires of gehenna can destroy a body out of existence the Soul/life will be destroyed just as equally. See the Bible you use that has the word hell there should not be translated hell in that scripture. The Greek word hades nor the Hebrew word Sheol are not there in that scripture. The Greek word Gehenna is there and it represents a condition of total annihilation. Gehenna at one time was a place that the Jews worshipped false gods but by the time Jesus was on the scene teaching his Apostles and Disciples, Gehenna was a garbage dump that was consistently on fire so that whatever garbage was thrown in there was burned up. Dead animals(corpses) and dead criminals(corpes) were thrown in gehenna so when Jesus stated Matthew 10:28 using the word gehenna the jews of that time knew Jesus wasn't talking about throwing living humans in this place and burning them the death because the jews didn't use that place that way.
 

kcnalp

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Quite an imagination?
They don't know Mary from Satan.

2 Corinthians 11 For Satan himself transforms himself into an angel of light.
15 Therefore it is no great thing if his ministers also transform themselves into ministers of righteousness,
 
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kcnalp

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Elijah was assumed into Heaven.
Moses DIED and was buried (Deut. 34:5-6).

Question for YOU:
Did Moses SEE and HEAR Jesus at the Transfiguration?
I thought the saints in Heaven were "dead" and couldn't see OR hear us.
You're TWISTING my words. I said they died, not that they are dead. BIG difference.
 

BreadOfLife

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Does she talk to you?
Nope.

I simply ask her to pray for me because she is a member of the Body of Christ in Heaven.
You don't know that?
Jesus is the Author of the Bible. You don't know?
Cool - can you show me where the Bible says that?
Chapter and Verse, please . . .

You see - MY Bible says that Jesus is the Author of faith (Heb. 12:2).
It also says that He IS the Word (John 1:1). However, 2 Pet. 1:20-21 says that the Holy Spirit is the Author of Scripture.
 

BreadOfLife

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But they were sinners, even Mary!
They were sinners in their sinful flesh which they are no longer hindered by.
They have been made perfect in Christ. Mary was "Kecharitomene" (Luke 1:28), so she didn't sin.

NOTHING imperfect or impure can enter Heaven (Rev. 21:27).
 

BreadOfLife

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You're TWISTING my words. I said they died, not that they are dead. BIG difference.
Okay - so answer the question:
Did Moses SEE and HEAR Jesus at the Transfiguration?
 

BreadOfLife

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Why? Why don't you ask Paul? They were both sinners but Paul wrote most of the NT. Mary wrote ZERO!
I DO ask Paul to pray for me.
I ask MANY saints in Heaven to pray for me.

We don't just ask Mary.
In post #97, @Philip James clearly showed you this when he wrote: "ALL you holy men and women, pray for us!"
 
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BreadOfLife

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Proof that catholics talk to the dead.
If YOU believe that the people in Heaven are "DEAD" - then you don't believe in Christ.
Sooooooo, why are you wasting your time pretending to believe?

Luke 20:38
Now he is not God of the dead, but of the living, for all live to him.”
 
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Truther

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If YOU believe that the people in Heaven are "DEAD" - then you don't believe in Christ.
Sooooooo, why are you wasting your time pretending to believe?

Luke 20:38
Now he is not God of the dead, but of the living, for all live to him.”
Sure the dead are there, but we do not talk to the dead. We only talk to the one that raises the dead.
 

BreadOfLife

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Sure the dead are there, but we do not talk to the dead. We only talk to the one that raises the dead.
So, if you're planning on being to be "Dead" in Heaven - why bother?

Sounds to me like you don't know Christ, who said the following . . .

Luke 20:38
Now he is not God of the dead, but of the living, for all live to him.”
 
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Illuminator

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But they were sinners, even Mary!
That is an 18th century diabolical assertion invented by Protestant liberals. IMO, it's diabolical because it diminishes the uniqueness of the Incarnation. Before that, every Protestant church on the planet accepted the reformers teaching that Mary was sinless. Luther, Calvin, Zwingli and others. Do you want quotes? That's what gets me about Protestantism, you can reject the reformers teachings and still be a good Protestant.

oldest-marian-prayer.jpg


theotokos-prayer-text.png

The earliest known prayer to the Theotokos (Greek, Θεοτόκος, meaning “Bearer of God”) is a prayer found on a fragment of papyrus dating back to approximately AD 250. In 1917, the John Rylands Library [1] in Manchester, England, acquired a large panel of Egyptian papyrus. The prayer is located on the fragment recorded as reference number Greek Papyrus 470. The prayer appears to be from a Coptic Christmas liturgy or vespers written in Koine Greek although the fragment in question may be a private copy of the prayer. The prayer is still chanted in the Orthodox Church to this day at the end of nearly every Vespers service during Lent. It is also found in the worship services of the Roman Catholic and Oriental Churches.

The early date of this prayer is important for a number of reasons, one of which is that it supports our understanding that the term Theotokos was not just a theological concept defended at the Third Ecumenical Council in AD 431, but was already in popular use and well-known several centuries before the Nestorian heresy.
As St. Gregory of Nazianzus stated in AD 379, “If someone does not uphold that the holy Mary is Theotokos, he is separated from divinity.” (Letter 101, PG 37, 177C) Early Christians recognized the Theotokos as a powerful intercessor for those who are suffering and in need of protection. Christians have been seeking her intercessions from the time of the ancient Church and well over a thousand years up to this very day.

Beneath thy compassion,
 We take refuge, O Mother of God:
 do not despise our petitions in time of trouble,
but rescue us from dangers,
only pure one, only blessed one.

Hear the hymn in Greek: Υπο την σην ευσπλαγχνιαν καταφευγομεν Θεοτοκε. τας ημων ικεσιας μη παριδης εν περιστασει, αλλ’ εκ κινδυνων λυτρωσαι ημας, μονη αγνη, μονη ευλογημενη.

See also our video on “The Icon of the Dormition of the Theotokos” and the video on “Our Pilgrimage to Where the Theotokos Fell Asleep”.

An excerpt from “The Significance of the Term Theotokos” from The Byzantine Fathers of the Fifth Century (Fr. Georges Florovsky) June, 1987.

“The term Theotokos — Θεοτοκος — does not mean the same as “Mother of God” in English or the common Latin translation. In English one must translate Theotokos as “Bearer of God.” The correct Latin would bedeipara or dei genetrix, not Mater Dei. Had Nestorius been more prudent he would have realized that the term Theotokos had a comparatively long usage — it had been used by Origen, by Alexander of Alexandria, by Eusebius of Caesarea, Cyril of Jerusalem, Athanasius, Gregory of Nazianzus, Gregory of Nyssa, and Cyril. In the Latin West Tertullian had used the term Dei Mater in De patientia 3 and Ambrose also used it in his Hexaemeron V, 65 (Patrologia Latina. 14, 248A). More significant is that the Antiochene theologian Eustathius (bishop of Antioch from c.324 to 330), so often considered a forerunner of Nestorius, had some remarkably un-Antiochene tendencies in his Christology, one of which was the use of the term Theotokos.”
The earliest known prayer to the Theotokos.
"Mary a sinner" is a doctrine of demons. God did not HAVE TO make Mary sinless, He CHOSE because it was fitting for the mother of the Messiah.

Notice how the anti-Mary crowd baits Catholics into defending Mary apart from Jesus and apart from the Old Testament. They do that because their anti-Mary animus is not biblical, their Judaic roots are severed and they divorce themselves from the early historic Church. Then they show up on forums thinking they have one up on Catholics.
 
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BreadOfLife

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At 1Peter 3:18,19 in this Greek text the words “flesh” and “spirit” are put in contrast to each other, and both are in the dative case; so, if a translator uses the rendering “by the spirit” he should also consistently say “by the flesh,” or if he uses “in the flesh” he should also say “in the spirit.” So Jesus was resurrected a spiritual being which is a body it's just not a fleshly body that's why the romans Guards didn't see Jesus but they saw the. Did Jesus as a spiritual being have the ability to manifest himself with a fleshly body that looked human when he appeared to his Apostles and disciples, yes! So at Luke 24:38,39 when Jesus appeared to his Apostles looking like he was human he wasn't in his natural state which is a spirit. Angels in the past in the OT when God sent an Angel to one of his faithful servants or prophets they appeared as though they were human but they only looked human.

The scripture Matthew 10:28 that you quoted, According to your belief, unless I misunderstood you, you don't believe the body goes to hell. This scripture is simply telling Jesus Apostles and Disciples not to be afraid of those in which the worst they can do is kill you but then it's out of their hands because those men can't judge on rather you will get a resurrection or not, that's Gods business. So as long as a disciple of Jesus is faithful he/she will get a resurrection. However if one is unfaithful Jesus has been given the authority and the ability to destroy you completely out of existence because just as the fires of gehenna can destroy a body out of existence the Soul/life will be destroyed just as equally. See the Bible you use that has the word hell there should not be translated hell in that scripture. The Greek word hades nor the Hebrew word Sheol are not there in that scripture. The Greek word Gehenna is there and it represents a condition of total annihilation. Gehenna at one time was a place that the Jews worshipped false gods but by the time Jesus was on the scene teaching his Apostles and Disciples, Gehenna was a garbage dump that was consistently on fire so that whatever garbage was thrown in there was burned up. Dead animals(corpses) and dead criminals(corpes) were thrown in gehenna so when Jesus stated Matthew 10:28 using the word gehenna the jews of that time knew Jesus wasn't talking about throwing living humans in this place and burning them the death because the jews didn't use that place that way.
Yes, I'm well aware of Gehenna - but that wasn't my point.
I merely showed you that the Greek word for "soul" (psyche) regarded the SPIRITUAL realm as well as the physical.

Our conversation began when YOU said: "Those who believe you can talk to the dead don't believe in death."
The WHOLE point of asking those in Heaven to pray for us is that they are fellow members of the Body of Christ - who have been made PERFECT in Christ. NOTHING imperfect can enter Heaven (Rev. 21:27).

So, if you ask flawed, sinful person on earth to pray for you - WHY would you discount the prayers of those who are in the presence of almighty God and have been perfected?
 
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