A Question for Jehovah's Witnesses

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APAK

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There's some presumption! Wow!

The fact that you engage in a certain behavior, and the fact that I say something about it, does not equal into "feel so personally hurt".

I can with the same validity tell you I'm sorry you've become so deranged by my comments. It's just not real.

It's just you dipping into my emotional treasure chest to come up with a way to invalidate my statement, as if I'm just what, knee-jerking because I feel so hurt inside?

I ascribe trinitarian teaching to sincere belief, and you ascribe it to money-grubbing. I called you on that, and you deflect to what you call "my feelings". Which is really your construct, which has nothing to do with what I am feeling.

Totally invalid. Pure deflection.

Much love!
I just want to improve on and correct your view on why I wrote was I did. Yes, money and wealth is no doubt a large part of this ongoing 'deadly' charade; more significant though is the immense power and influence thrown around on at least a weekly basis, over the thoughts and faith of many innocent people. And you completely overlooked this 'monster' in the room. It is now uncontrollable indeed.
 

Keiw

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What does that mean? That you don't care this is a name made up by men about 1500 years ago or so?

God has in fact given us His Name, Jesus. Or more specifically, ιησους, pronounced "yay-soos", transliterated Jesus, back when the "J" was pronounced like "Y". This Name we know, and we know how to say it. We know it because God revealed it to us in His Word.

It's Jesus! :)

Much love!
No man ever made Gods name up. They can claim it until blue in the face, but its not truth.
 

Keiw

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View attachment 36388
Do you know what I mean when I say, "the lexical form" of a word? This is the basic root form of a word.

Ho Theos is the lexical form, and means, God. Ho is an article, not always translated, but belongs with the noun. Depending on the context ho theos may be translated either "God" or "the God", with or without the capital, as there is no capitalization in the original.

Ton Theon, as you see at the end of verse two, is the same word, with the same meaning, but is in the "accusative" form. This means that it's receiving the action of the verb.

In English, we show this by word position. "I threw the ball." "The ball" appears after the verb, so we know it receives the action. I threw something, it was the ball that was thrown.

In Koine Greek, instead of using word position to show this, they used word spelling, which allowed them to put the word in any part of the sentence they wanted to. Often Koine Greek writers would put their most important parts first for emphasis.

If I were wanting you to know first and foremost that the ball was thrown, I could say "The ball I threw." In English, this reads like a sentence fragment, because we rely on word order, but in Koine Greek, it's a perfectly good sentence. The "on" ending, "ton theon" lets us know this.

Are you with me so far?

What I'm saying here is that ton theon and ho theos are the same word, only, one has the different ending to show it's receiving the action of the verb. It's purely for grammatical syntax, not to alter the word meaning beyond that.

In this case, John wrote, the Word was toward God, and God was the Word. In that first instance, "God" receives the action of the Word being towards, so, ton theon, while in the second case no such distinction is needed, so, ho theos.

What you called a "g" is the ending form of sigma, our "s".

Much love!
2Cor 4:4 proves you listen to deceivers. They twist many things to fit their false reasonings. Like Coll 1:15-Jesus is the firstborn of all creation--Fact-All creation occurred at the beginning. Jesus is the first creation. They say its when he was born on earth. Fact-all creation occurred in the beginning.
 

marks

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No man ever made Gods name up. They can claim it until blue in the face, but its not truth.
No, they didn't make up God's Name. What they did was put the vowel points from a word meaning "lord" into the consonants of God's Name YHWH, to prevent people from pronouncing His Name.

Later, other men came to their manuscript, and worked out how to pronounce their combined word as "Jehovah", as if were God's Name. That name is NEVER given in the inspired Scriptures. It is a copyist's method of preventing others from saying, or even thinking, God's Name.

Much love!
 

Keiw

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Not that I agree with your John 1:1 explanation you briefly gave here, I do like the reality you bring home though, that $$$xxx keep their lie of John 1:1 and even 14 alive.
John 1:1 is correct--Jesus has a God just like us-John 20:17, Rev 3:12--He is Gods son, not God.
 
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marks

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2Cor 4:4 proves you listen to deceivers.
I'm listening to the Bible.

Do you have any comment about my little Greek grammar lesson? We use language to communicate, and for that to work, you need to understand how a language works.

Much love!
 

Keiw

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I'm listening to the Bible.

Do you have any comment about my little Greek grammar lesson? We use language to communicate, and for that to work, you need to understand how a language works.

Much love!
Your Greeks are lying through their teeth. In 1822 A Greek scholar-A. Kneeland translated the NT and compared the Greek to English to prove to the world a god was 100% correct in the last line at John 1:1-19other translations had a god, 3 had was divine, 1 had was godlike-All rejected by trinity religions because that 1 fact exposes all of them as false religion. When the Greeks don't agree, only 1 side is correct. Other Greek scholars say the New world translation is the best ever.
 

marks

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I just want to improve on and correct your view on why I wrote was I did.
Is that so? Because it looked to me that you were casting aspersions to discredit the doctrine.

But OK, I accept you were just well what you said.

Much love!
 

marks

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Your Greeks are lying through their teeth. In 1822 A Greek scholar-A. Kneeland translated the NT and compared the Greek to English to prove to the world a god was 100% correct in the last line at John 1:1-19other translations had a god, 3 had was divine, 1 had was godlike-All rejected by trinity religions because that 1 fact exposes all of them as false religion. When the Greeks don't agree, only 1 side is correct. Other Greek scholars say the New world translation is the best ever.
How many Gods do you have? Will you publically admit to being polytheistic?

In fact far more Greek scholars translate this in agreement with the King James, if you want to play it that way. Appeals to authority, I suppose we can stack them all up and see which pile is taller.

But the simplicity is this. You claim it's correct to say, and the word was a god, so, how many gods do you have?

Much love!
 

Keiw

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How many Gods do you have? Will you publically admit to being polytheistic?

Much love!
Only1 God-YHWH(Jehovah)--small g god is not calling that one a God--it carries the meaning-has godlike qualities. Same at 2 Cor 4:4--satan has godlike qualities, he is not a God.
 

marks

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2Cor 4:4 proves you listen to deceivers.
2 Corinthians 4:4 KJV
4) In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

How so?

Much love!
 

marks

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Only1 God-YHWH(Jehovah)--small g god is not calling that one a God--it carries the meaning-has godlike qualities. Same at 2 Cor 4:4--satan has godlike qualities, he is not a God.
The word is theos. God. Not "godlike".

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If you'll notice here, "and God was the Word", "God" is a nominative noun, not an adjective. It's a name for something or someone, in this case, someone. God. Nominative Noun. "God-like" is not supported in the text. Divine is also an adjective, so it is not supported either.

Much love!
 

Jack

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Pretend like I answered our inflammatory statement and distracting question to your immense satisfaction. Now, what is the answer to my question?
Col 1 By Jesus all things were created.

Jesus is THE God of the Bible.
 

Jack

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Everyone with Gods name removed in over 7000 spots. They still have a lot of truth but many errors as well. Like the Greek Lexicons prove 100% the word did not get capitol G God in the last line at John 1:1.
Start naming them O self professed Hebrew expert. Which Bibles are errors and Satanic? Do you need to consult with Kingdom Hall?
 
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Keiw

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2 Corinthians 4:4 KJV
4) In whom the god of this world hath blinded the minds of them which believe not, lest the light of the glorious gospel of Christ, who is the image of God, should shine unto them.

How so?

Much love!
The same word for the true God at John 1:1-2Cor 4:4 ends in v= God--The same word given to satan at 2Cor 4:4 and the Logos at John 1:1 ends in g=god, it works the same at both spots.
 

Keiw

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It's funny to see the trinitarians dismiss such an obvious conspiracy to take away honor from the author of the Book of Life.
They are mislead by altered translations, only used by false religions claiming to belong to Jesus.
 
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Keiw

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The word is theos. God. Not "godlike".

View attachment 36397
If you'll notice here, "and God was the Word", "God" is a nominative noun, not an adjective. It's a name for something or someone, in this case, someone. God. Nominative Noun. "God-like" is not supported in the text. Divine is also an adjective, so it is not supported either.

Much love!
Fact=John 20:17, Rev 3:12--proving your theory is false. Because its 100% fact-God does not have a God.