Keiw
Well-Known Member
God used wicked men in the past to achieve his will. God can use others in the congregation for certain purposes, but NEVER does a domestic know a revealed truth before these do-Matt 24:45. So the brother was correct.
A Question for Jehovah's Witnesses
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Keiw
Well-Known Member
There is no need to name them. All know already if Gods name is in their translation over 7000 places. Or if it was removed by satans will to mislead all using those altered translations.
You made the claim that our Bibles are errors and Satanic. Put up or shut up! Name them!
Do you know about Greek syntax? Word forms? You are drawing conclusions from something that actually relates something completely different. The change in the word ending has to do with how the word interacts with other words, not what that word means, which is determined by the lexical form.
And it's not g, its sigma.
Much love!
Keiw
Well-Known Member
I said every translation with Gods name removed is altered by satans will. And yes those are filled with Catholicism translating errors put in the Latin Vulgate to fit false council teachings. The Greek Lexicons were translated from the Latin vulgate. No translation occurred until the 1300,s after the latin Vulgate. Some tried but satans religion( 2 Thess 2:3) burned them alive at the stake if they tried to translate. No religion that had Jesus would do such a thing. Her branches did not fix it. All using the altered translations are mislead into supporting satans will over Gods will. Every scholar on earth knows 100%-God willed his name in his bible because he wants it there. All who love and respect Godswill make sure his name is put back. But the religions lacking the love and respect for Gods will actually condemned the ones who put it back-That is who you serve.= mislead.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
You're JW at heart, right?
Hebrews 1
6 But when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says: "Let all the angels of God worship Him."
7 And of the angels He says: "Who makes His angels spirits And His ministers a flame of fire."
8 But to the Son He says: "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom.
9 You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions."10 And: "You, LORD, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the work of Your hands.
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Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Jesus’ being a god for Thomas does not make him the God of himself, Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. See the difference?
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
So, you don’t see the difference between the claim ‘my god’ from claiming ‘the God’s?
You're playing word games. Thomas called Jesus 'my God', which is confirmed many times in the NT and OT.
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Wrangler
Well-Known Member
Not once. And you are the one playing word games. Unable to discern an exclamation from a declarative statement.
I quoted God. You totally evaded. You conveniently missed this.
Hebrews 1
6 But when He again brings the firstborn into the world, He says: "Let all the angels of God worship Him."
7 And of the angels He says: "Who makes His angels spirits And His ministers a flame of fire."
8 But to the Son He says: "Your throne, O God, is forever and ever; A scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom.9 You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; Therefore God, Your God, has anointed You With the oil of gladness more than Your companions."10 And: "You, LORD, in the beginning laid the foundation of the earth, And the heavens are the work of Your hands.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
No. You quoted Thomas.
Thomas made a personal statement not a narrative statement that applies generally to all. You know this but that is all you got so you won't let it go.
Sure you're not JW? You're quite evasive of the Scriptures I posted. I'll take Thomas' word over yours any day. Jesus taught Thomas. Who 'taught' you?
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One….the same God that Jesus himself worshipped. (Deut 6:4) He is one, not three.
No…he is a singular entity…..Israel knew no other.
You claim to know Greek and yet you fail to acknowledge what the word “theos” actually means in Greek rather than how it is understood in English.
Strongs gives the primary definition of “theos” (god) as …..
- “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities”
Jesus identified his Father as “the only true God” without including himself. He is called “God’s holy servant”…..so how can God be his own servant?
Apparently you don’t read our replies….we acknowledge ONE God…..Yahweh. Our God does not have multiple personalities. He does not talk to himself, pray to himself, or need to become a human in order to become our savior. He sent the one gave his sinless human life in exchange for ours.
You do understand that the LORD in that verse is Yahweh. But what about the splitting of the mountain?
What is indicated by the division of the mountain of the olive trees?
Yahweh speaks of the two mountains that result from the splitting of “the Mount of Olives” as being “my mountains.” Both of them are his.
When the symbolic mountain splits, half to the north and half to the south, Yahweh’s feet remain set upon both mountains. “A very great valley” comes into existence beneath his feet. This symbolic valley represents divine protection, by which Jehovah’s servants find safety under his universal sovereignty and his Son’s Messianic Kingdom. God will make sure that pure worship will never be snuffed out, no matter how wicked human society becomes.
Just because Jesus preached on the Mount of Olives, doesn’t mean that he is Yahweh.
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