All the fulness of Deity dwells in Him Bodily !

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justbyfaith

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How does the HS become separated from the father ?? become a distinct substance (hypostasis) and "Proceed from the Father" -

The HS is one of at least 2 emanations from the Godhead - but this does not make Trinity Doctrine -Gnostism.

But apparently you are attempting to teach gnosticism by relating it to the Trinity.

The Holy Ghost is the same substance as the Father....He is in fact the same Person. The same Spirit (Ephesians 4:4, John 4:23-24, John 7:39).

A- Faith Alone (Sola Fide ) no works required
B - some mixture of faith and works
C- Works alone - no faith required.

We see examples of B and C in scripture. What we do not see much of - is salvation by faith alone .

That we are saved by faith apart from works is evident in, and not limited to, the following scriptures:

Romans 4:5-6

Titus 3:5

Romans 11:5-6

Ephesians 2:8-9.

The Majority of Christianity Catholic-Orthodox - rejects "Sola fide". The majority believes it is a mixture of faith and works.

See Matthew 7:13-14 for what I believe about this.

Good Quote from James. This is echoed directly in the Sermon on the Mount - where Jesus describes what is required to make it through the pearly gates.


Matt 7:21 “Not everyone who says to me, ‘Lord, Lord,’ will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only the one who does the will of my Father who is in heaven. 22 Many will say to me on that day, ‘Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in your name and in your name drive out demons and in your name perform many miracles?’ 23 Then I will tell them plainly, ‘I never knew you. Away from me, you evildoers!’

24 “Therefore everyone who hears these words of mine and puts them into practice is like a wise man who built his house on the rock. 25 The rain came down, the streams rose, and the winds blew and beat against that house; yet it did not fall, because it had its foundation on the rock. 26 But everyone who hears these words of mine and does not put them into practice is like a foolish man who built his house on sand. 27 The rain came down, the streams rose, and the winds blew and beat against that house, and it fell with a great crash.”

Of course, these scriptures do not contradict or deny sola fide, lest the scripture contradict itself.

There are two sides to the same coin.

On one side, a man is not justified by works but by faith alone. He is regenerated and renewed "not by works of righteousness which we have done..." but by the mercy of the Lord.

On the other side, regeneration and renewal means that a man's life is changed by the power of the blood of Jesus and the Holy Ghost.

It is the same thing - you are pining over semantics. How does the HS become "distinct" "not the same as" the Father -

He is "the same as" the Father...the same exact Person.

Again, the Father descended to become a Man; then that Man died on the Cross and released His Spirit (the Father) back to the Father (the 1st Person of the Trinity who inhabiteth eternity).

You say "The Holy Spirit was "released" from the Father "

No, I say that the HS was released from the body of "the Son" back to the Father.

So the HS went somewhere .. and then came back to the Father is what you are saying.

The Father inhabiteth eternity, and is an eternal Spirit. As such, He cannot vacate eternity when He descends to become the Son. So, he both goes forward and stays behind in the incarnation. There is a sense in which He duplicates himself through the relationship between time and eternity.

So during the time when the spirit is released .. there is a distinction between God and the HS = "they are not the same - one can be distinguished from the other" .

They are the same Person. The distinction is in that the HS has lived a human life and the Father has not yet been human.

Obviously what you are describing is a separation between the HS and "The Father" .. if they were not separated .. then one could not go back to the other as you suggest .. as they never were separated in any way.

They are not separate but distinct....even according to the creeds.

The only way one can make any sense of this contradiction .. is if while these entities are separated/Distinct - they are still connected.

No, it can be explained in other ways.

I believe that the Holy Ghost is the same Spirit as the Father and therefore the same Person.

The dsitinction has to do with the Father's descension into time and His subsequent death in which He relased Himself back to Himself in eternity.

Which is what Trinity Doctrine states - which is exactly what the phrase "emanation from the Godhead" is describing - regardless of whether or not Gnostics used similar terminology to describe something related - but in a different way.

It is heresy to call the Trinity "emanations from the Godhead".

While Jesus spoke God's Word via the HS .. Human's are not able to do this -sans a brief intervention directly from "the Father" which we are told happened with the Apostles.

Average Joe is not able to do this - and attempting to do this is heresy - usurping the position of Jesus - the "unforgivable Sin" - blasphemy of the Holy Spirit.

It is preposterous to say that a man speaking for God is committing the unpardonable sin....I suppose that you believer that this sin was committed by Moses and the prophets (the apostles too)!
 

justbyfaith

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Just be cause someone has the Holy Ghost inside them does not qualify them as God.

Only the Col 2:9 effect can qualify them, but they first must be made a quickening spirit and omnipresent to accomplish this feat.

What qualifies Jesus as God is the fact that He was the Father before the beginning of time (Luke 1:35).

Was the Spirit incarnated or fertilizing the woman's egg?

Were we incarnated from 2 parents or begotten?

To say that the Holy Spirit "fertilized" the egg in Mary's womb is to reduce the Holy Spirit to the level of a sperm.

But He was indeed the "male side" of the zygote that eventually grew up to become the Son of God.
 
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Heyzeus

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Indeed the True God who is the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.

Amen !

Not according to the Bible - but, you are welcome to your belief. "My God My God - Why have you Forsaken Me"
Jesus is clearly not depicted as "The Father" in Mark and Matt - and no one in the early Church believed what you are claiming ... the idea not even mentioned until 170's after the death of our Lord.

"Why do you call me Good" - there is no one good but the Father "
"Our/My Father, who art in heaven .. Hallowed be "Thy Name" . .. which is not my name -infers Jesus

.Ignatius of Antioch (50-115): "Jesus Christ ... is the expressed purpose of the Father, just as the bishops who have been appointed throughout the world exist by the purpose of Jesus Christ."[11] "Be subject to the bishop and to one another, as Jesus Christ in the flesh was subject to the Father and the apostles were subject to Christ and the Father, so that there may be unity both fleshly and spiritual."[12] "All of you are to follow the bishop as Jesus Christ follows the Father, and the presbytery [the elders] as the apostles."

Didache (c. 1st century): "We thank you, our Father, for the holy vine of David your servant, which you have made known unto us through Jesus your Servant."[18] "We thank you, our Father, for the life and knowledge, which you have made known to us through Jesus your Servant. Glory to you forever!"

The early Church believed that Jesus was "Subordinate" to the Father. Jesus is a Servant of God - not God - and Jesus is depicted as a Servant of throughout Matt/Mark.

"not my will but your will" as Jesus is asking God to take the nasty cup from his hand. Clearly there are two different "wills" happening here .. these two are not unified in their desire w/r on this issue. Jesus however subverts his own will .. to that of his Father in Heaven.

There are distinct personages represented here - not one .. but two .. and these personages are at odds. Jesus requests that he not have to go through the ordeal .. his request is denied.

Just as Jesus obeys the "Will of the Father" .. so do the other Sons of God - who bow down and worship the Father in Deut 32:43 - while rejoicing with "the most high" in heaven.

And we are told that Satan is one of these "Sons of God" - and learn that Satan also follows "the will of the Father"
 

Heyzeus

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Most say the logos became flesh.

This means Spirit became flesh, which directly contradicts Jesus' description of God in John 4:24.

To me these are trivial distinctions ... what difference does it make whether or not the word became flesh .. or the word resided in the flesh.

The purpose of the "Logos" either way - was to deliver Gods Word directly to humanity. Your mission - to accept this word - does not change regardless of whether it is one or the other.
 

Heyzeus

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What qualifies Jesus as God is the fact that he was the Father before the beginning of time (Luke 1:35).

To say that the Holy Spirit "fertilized" the egg in Mary's womb is to reduce the Holy Spirit to the level of a sperm.

But He was indeed the "male side" of the zygote that eventually grew up to become the Son of God.

OMG - are you seriously claiming to know when the soul arrives ... that is ridiculous. A desperate and somewhat pathetic attempt to fit man made dogma into scripture.

Careful - as you are darn close to committing the unforgivable sin .. Putting words in God's mouth that he did not say .. usurping the position of the Logos.

.
 

justbyfaith

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The early Church believed that Jesus was "Subordinate" to the Father. Jesus is a Servant of God - not God - and Jesus is depicted as a Servant of throughout Matt/Mark.

Apparently, your problem is that you only accept Matthew and Mark as inspired scripture, when 2 Timothy 3:16 tells us we are to take the whole Bible into account.

Clearly, John 1:1-3, John 1:14 tells us that Jesus is the Lord God.
 
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ChristisGod

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Apparently, your problem is that you only accept Matthew and Mark as inspired scripture, when 2 Timothy 3:16 tells us we are to take the whole Bible into account.

Clearly, John 1:1-3, John 1:14 tells us that Jesus is the Lord God.
All heretics/false teachers discard and divide the inspired word of God for the natural man cannot understand the things of God for they are foolishness to them. With the spirit of God dwelling in man one can understand and bring harmony to the Scriptures not division. This thread brings that out crystal clear.
 
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justbyfaith

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OMG - are you seriously claiming to know when the soul arrives ... that is ridiculous. A desperate and somewhat pathetic attempt to fit man made dogma into scripture.

Abortion is a separate issue; and I have commented on it elsewhere and do not consider it to be my forte as concerning doctrine; so I will leave it alone here.

Careful - as you are darn close to committing the unforgivable sin .. Putting words in God's mouth that he did not say .. usurping the position of the Logos.

To put words in God's mouth is not the unforgiveable sin...

If anything, the one who speaks for the Lord is not hiding his talent in the sand and will be commended of the Lord on his day of judgment...even if he got some things wrong because of human error.

I know that I may personally have the gift of prophecy...however I also have a mental illness that has the potential of making my prophecies off-base...should I then neglect to operate in my spiritual gift?

No, I will utilize my gift and also warn people of that potential so that they will not trust implicitly in what I say but will rather check my words with the holy scriptures, as the Bereans of the New Testamenr also did (Acts of the Apostles 17:10-11).
 

justbyfaith

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To me these are trivial distinctions ... what difference does it make whether or not the word became flesh .. or the word resided in the flesh.
Simply, that the Bible teaches it, and that it is sound doctrine, that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us (John 1:14).

If anyone departs from the teaching of holy scripture to any degree, it has the potential of developing into great heresy.

If I leave LA for Hawaii and the plane is off-course by one degree, it will end up in the middle of the ocean after it has gone the distance.
 
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justbyfaith

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Not that I think it will make any difference...

But, Jesus claimed to be God in John 8:58 by making a statement with a breaking of normal grammatical usage...and the Pharisees did not misunderstand Him, but picked up stones to stone Him on not only that occasion (John 8:59, John 10:31-33). They understood His claim to be God.

And Jesus also claimed that believing in His Deity is an essential for salvation in John 8:24.
 

Heyzeus

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But apparently you are attempting to teach gnosticism by relating it to the Trinity.

The Holy Ghost is the same substance as the Father....He is in fact the same Person. The same Spirit (Ephesians 4:4, John 4:23-24, John 7:39).

I am doing no such thing .. you don't know what Gnostism is - so have no basis for such an absurd claim.

Yes .. the Trinity states "Same Substance - Homoousios" .. the part you are leaving out is that it also says 3 different substances - 3 separate hypostasis.

It is the 3 separate and distinct hypostasis/substances - that we are discussing .. the big Trinity contradiction - that everyone recognizes as a contradiction - Theologians included.


That we are saved by faith apart from works is evident in, and not limited to, the following scriptures:

That would be Paul's take ... but not the perspective of Jesus .. where it is not just "evident" that works are a requirement - but stated directly in no uncertain terms.



f course, these scriptures do not contradict or deny sola fide, lest the scripture contradict itself.

There is a reason why the majority of Christianity does not accept Sola Fide. One of those reasons is because this doctrine is contradicted by Jesus .. and unfortunately - Scripture often contradicts itself.

A) Should children be killed for the sins of their parents - by other humans ? or should they not

The question you have not managed to grapple with - but this is one of many contradictions in Scripture.


He is "the same as" the Father...the same exact Person.

Not according to Jesus - in particular the Jesus of Matt/Mark.

They are not separate but distinct....even according to the creeds.

They are both separate .. and distinct - but at the same time .. not separate - nor distinct. This is the conundrum of the Trinity.

Twirling around crying around saying "The Creed says they are the same substance" and being correct about this .. does not change the fact that the creed also says that they are not the same substance

So the answer to the question " Are Jesus and God - of the same substance" is both yes and no. The Trinity claims that Jesus was both "The same substance" and "Not the same substance"

"



No, it can be explained in other ways.

I believe that the Holy Ghost is the same Spirit as the Father and therefore the same Person.

The dsitinction has to do with the Father's descension into time and His subsequent death in which He relased Himself back to Himself in eternity.

It is heresy to call the Trinity "emanations from the Godhead".

Then go ahead and explain it in a different way .. so far you have completely failed to provide explanation. We know that the Creed says they are the same substance ... what you fail to address is that the creed also says that the they are not the same substance.

It is not heresy to state that there ware 3 different personages in the Trinity ... that is the Trinity. It is not heresy to state that the Son proceeds from the Father - which is the same as saying "emanates" from the Father.

The problem here is not heresy .. but your lack of understanding of Doctrine.



It is preposterous to say that a man speaking for God is committing the unpardonable sin....I suppose that you believer that this sin was committed by Moses and the prophets (the apostles too)
 

ChristisGod

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Not that I think it will make any difference...

But, Jesus claimed to be God in John 8:58 by making a statement with a breaking of normal grammatical usage...and the Pharisees did not misunderstand Him, but picked up stones to stone Him on not only that occasion (John 8:59, John 10:31-33). They understood His claim to be God.

And Jesus also claimed that believing in His Deity is an essential for salvation in John 8:24.
And all Gods children said , AMEN !
 

Heyzeus

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Apparently, your problem is that you only accept Matthew and Mark as inspired scripture, when 2 Timothy 3:16 tells us we are to take the whole Bible into account.

Clearly, John 1:1-3, John 1:14 tells us that Jesus is the Lord God.

It is simply not true that I only accept Matt/Mark as inspired .. I accept other scripture as inspired as well. I just don't think every word is the "Word of God" - if that were the case we need to go back and put the Shepherd of Hermes and Barnabus .. and all texts from the Catholic Bible which are not in the Protestant Bible - back into the Bible.

You are the one that has been running from Scripture - running from the Teachings of Jesus in Matt/Mark - do you not believe that these are inspired ? or is it only Pauline scripture that is inspired.

The fact of the matter is the the Jesus of Mark/Matt - contradicts sola fide in no uncertain terms .. I have not ignored Timothy - like you wish to ignore Matt/Mark .. I have merely stated that if you claim Timothy says "works are not a requirement" - that this contradicts Jesus in Matt/Mark.

Clearly John says that Jesus was "The Logos" The emissary between man and God .. sent by the Father to teach God's word to the Jews.. and later the gentiles.
 

farouk

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Simply, that the Bible teaches it, and that it is sound doctrine, that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us (John 1:14).

If anyone departs from the teaching of holy scripture to any degree, it has the potential of developing into great heresy.

If I leave LA for Hawaii and the plane is off-course by one degree, it will end up in the middle of the ocean after it has gone the distance.
@justbyfaith Indeed very Scriptural; and good comparison with the flight being off course, if not followed....
 

Heyzeus

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To put words in God's mouth is not the unforgiveable sin...

If anything, the one who speaks for the Lord is not hiding his talent in the sand and will be commended of the Lord on his day of judgment...even if he got some things wrong because of human error.

So putting words that God did not say into his mouth - and pretending otherwise - is not blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. Is this your final answer ?
 

Heyzeus

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Simply, that the Bible teaches it, and that it is sound doctrine, that the Word became flesh and dwelt among us (John 1:14).

If anyone departs from the teaching of holy scripture to any degree, it has the potential of developing into great heresy.

If I leave LA for Hawaii and the plane is off-course by one degree, it will end up in the middle of the ocean after it has gone the distance.

I agree the word became flesh .. but how is it different to say that the HS was flesh .. or the HS dwelt in the flesh ? I is really the same thing for all intensive purposes.

Was the HS Jesus - or is the HS something different from Jesus .. a distinct personage within one Godhead.
 

justbyfaith

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I am doing no such thing .. you don't know what Gnostism is - so have no basis for such an absurd claim.

This is what every gnostic says to me...that I don't know what gnosticism teaches or else I would be a gnostic...

Therefore I do not want to know what gnosticism teaches.

Yes .. the Trinity states "Same Substance - Homoousios" .. the part you are leaving out is that it also says 3 different substances - 3 separate hypostasis.

It is the 3 separate and distinct hypostasis/substances - that we are discussing .. the big Trinity contradiction - that everyone recognizes as a contradiction - Theologians included.

I do not see a contradiction there...and my thread on the Trinity explains it (may post a link shortly)

True Trinity. (espcially posts #1-#6).

That would be Paul's take ... but not the perspective of Jesus .. where it is not just "evident" that works are a requirement - but stated directly in no uncertain terms.

Jesus' take on it is that if you are going to insist on being saved by your works...the only work that will save you is simple faith in Him (John 6:28-29)

and unfortunately - Scripture often contradicts itself.

not.

A) Should children be killed for the sins of their parents - by other humans ? or should they not

The question you have not managed to grapple with - but this is one of many contradictions in Scripture.

Why don't you at least reference the scriptures that you think are contradicting each other so they can be dealt with.

Not according to Jesus - in particular the Jesus of Matt/Mark.

Chapter and verse, please.

They are both separate .. and distinct - but at the same time .. not separate - nor distinct. This is the conundrum of the Trinity.

They are never separate but only distinct.

Twirling around crying around saying "The Creed says they are the same substance" and being correct about this .. does not change the fact that the creed also says that they are not the same substance

Perhaps you should quote the entire creed you are referring to and highlight the part where you think it says they are separate.

So the answer to the question " Are Jesus and God - of the same substance" is both yes and no. The Trinity claims that Jesus was both "The same substance" and "Not the same substance"

See directly above.

Then go ahead and explain it in a different way .. so far you have completely failed to provide explanation.

I have provided an explanation...you have only failed to understand it.

We know that the Creed says they are the same substance ... what you fail to address is that the creed also says that the they are not the same substance.

Again, quote the creed that states it that way and highlight the part that says they are separate.

It is not heresy to state that there ware 3 different personages in the Trinity ... that is the Trinity. It is not heresy to state that the Son proceeds from the Father - which is the same as saying "emanates" from the Father.

No, "proceeds", is not the same as "emanates"...

One defines sound doctrine; and the other heresy.
 
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GerhardEbersoehn

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Enoch111 said: ↑
And that is because Christ is in His glorified heavenly body. So if you doubt this, then you are the one with a very serious problem -- using humanistic reasoning instead of spiritual discernment.


There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another. (1 cOR 15:40)

You quote out of context and misapply verse 40 to <<Christ .. in His glorified heavenly body>>.

39All flesh is not the same flesh: but there is one kind of flesh of men, another flesh of beasts, another of fishes, and another of birds. 40There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another. 41There is one glory of the sun, and another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars: for one star differeth from another star in glory.

A more correct rendering requires some (temporary) ad hoc changes to Textual sequence rather than the added words...

39All flesh is not the same flesh, but there is flesh of men, of beasts, of fishes, of birds 40all flesh of terrestrial bodies (life-forms).
40There also are celestial bodies, the sun, the moon, the stars—
but the glory of the celestial and of the terrestrial is one like the other / neither here nor there [hetera men…hetera de – the same] 41although [alla] the brightness of the sun and the moon and the stars differ one from the other.

The “flesh” and the “bodies” have nothing to do with the flesh or the body of Jesus at any stage of his heavenly or earthly existence.
 
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justbyfaith

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So putting words that God did not say into his mouth - and pretending otherwise - is not blasphemy of the Holy Spirit. Is this your final answer ?

Yes...and you had better believe that this means that there is still hope for you...

I agree the word became flesh .. but how is it different to say that the HS was flesh .. or the HS dwelt in the flesh ? I is really the same thing for all intensive purposes.

Was the HS Jesus - or is the HS something different from Jesus .. a distinct personage within one Godhead.

Same Spirit...distinct in that in the Son, the Spirit is come in the flesh.
 
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ChristisGod

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You quote out of context and misapply verse 40 to <<Christ .. in His glorified heavenly body>>.

39All flesh is not the same flesh: but there is one kind of flesh of men, another flesh of beasts, another of fishes, and another of birds. 40There are also celestial bodies, and bodies terrestrial: but the glory of the celestial is one, and the glory of the terrestrial is another. 41There is one glory of the sun, and another glory of the moon, and another glory of the stars: for one star differeth from another star in glory.

A more correct rendering requires some (temporary) ad hoc changes to Textual sequence rather than the added words...

39All flesh is not the same flesh, but there is flesh of men, of beasts, of fishes, of birds 40all flesh of terrestrial bodies (life-forms).
40There also are celestial bodies, the sun, the moon, the stars—
but the glory of the celestial and of the terrestrial is one like the other [hetera men…hetera de – the same] 41although [alla] the glory of the sun and the glory of the moon and the glory of the stars differ one from the other.

The “flesh” and the “bodies” have nothing to do with the flesh or the body of Jesus at any stage of his heavenly or earthly existence.
The you do not understand Paul's argument on the Resurrection nor the Scriptures. Body (soma) always means physical, material not immaterial. That is Pau's point in 1 Corinthians 15 regarding the soma(bodily) Resurrection of Jesus and Paul's argument in Colossians 2:9(bodily) sōmatikōs, σωματικῶς

hope this helps !!!
 
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