ok, thanks, ...it's getting a bit bizarre either way?i dont think so but she is placing limits on redemption and atonement i john 1:9 ALL unrighteousness
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ok, thanks, ...it's getting a bit bizarre either way?i dont think so but she is placing limits on redemption and atonement i john 1:9 ALL unrighteousness
Sorry CL, you didn't say anything, .....I said that the stipulation '...and walk by the spirit..' was not in the earliest manuscripts, therefore was excluded by the modern translators that reference the W&H, N/A & UBS. Point is, it doesn't change doctrine, as that, just because it's omitted, it doesn't mean that it's not implied, like you are trying to say. The spirit is at enmity with the flesh, is a principle that is understood by all Christians, ...I don't care who says otherwise.
So your allegations about doctrine being changed due to exclusion, does not hold water by any standard, it's just silly actually?
For, what about all the other verses that state one must be in Christ, that don't make the same stipulation, are they deficient or misleading also, obviously not!
Of course, that's exactly the point. Conspiracy theory has no grounds, it's an unfounded and absurd conclusion. One can claim incompetence, impetuousness, bad eyesight, dittography, haplograhy etc.. But not a concerted effort to corrupt doctrine. ...at best, one could accuse the copyists of attempting to make our scriptures appear unreliable, ...that would be the only viable accusation under the evidence.Ok, this serves as a good case in point for what I was asking ReChoired in Post #319. I can see adding a phrase as giving further clarification on the text, but to deliberately subtract it would (as you suggest) imply there was a deliberate move to insert heresy into church doctrine. But here's the question: Why then would they retain the same phrase in Romans 8:4? Seems like if this were the motivation they would have eliminated it from both verses, yes? The same goes 1 John 4:3 and 1 John 4:2. If the scribes were wishing to corrupt church teaching by subtracting key phrases, why didn't they eliminate it from the passage altogether?
There you go changing the subject again. You inability to follow the point, indicts your rationale!I don't think doctrines that cause people to go to hell as silly.
so there is a list of sins that jesus only covers ? if so would you provide then i want thesin into death i only know of one blaspheme which is total rejection of Christ dying in your sins. no repentance Jesus is our advocate to those saved FOR every sin . your using limited atonement
Why did God give this warning, several times:I could see the motivation behind why scribes would add to the texts to provide more clarity, but what do you think was the logical reason why they were subtracting from them?
left fieldish i can see not forgiving but i am of the opinion a child of God would forgive it might take some work God dealing with our heart .but if we say we are not chastised then we are illegitimate child not savedok, thanks, ...it's getting a bit bizarre either way?
the law was our school master note was.. law only points to sin can not fix sin Grace says we can be forgiven .i will write a check any day on grace compared to law insufficient fundsTo find out what a sin unto death is, all you have to do is look at the old testament and see which sins were not covered by a sacrifice where they instead stoned them to death. That would include the breaking of any of the Ten Commandments. They are sins of lawlessness against God's laws, so are against God, Himself.
The total rejection of Christ does not apply to a brother, so you are not describing the sin unto death of 1 John 5:16-17, and will have to rethink that one through a little better. It is not your fault, except for not questioning the teachers that teach what you quoted.
what if i started a teaching doctrine that said just be polite and you will go to heaven .. what would that lead to .its sure aint eternal lifeI don't think doctrines that cause people to go to hell as silly.
Ok, this serves as a good case in point for what I was asking ReChoired in Post #319. I can see adding a phrase as giving further clarification on the text, but to deliberately subtract it would (as you suggest) imply there was a deliberate move to insert heresy into church doctrine. But here's the question: Why then would they retain the same phrase in Romans 8:4? Seems like if this were the motivation they would have eliminated it from both verses, yes? The same goes for 1 John 4:3 and 1 John 4:2. If the scribes were wishing to corrupt church teaching by subtracting key phrases, why didn't they eliminate it from the passage altogether?
the law was our school master note was.. law only points to sin can not fix sin Grace says we can be forgiven .i will write a check any day on grace compared to law insufficient funds
what if i started a teaching doctrine that said just be polite and you will go to heaven .. what would that lead to .its sure aint eternal life
Why did God give this warning, several times:
Deu_4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.'
Deu_12:32 What thing soever I command you, observe to do it: thou shalt not add thereto, nor diminish from it.
Rev 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
Rev 22:19 And if any man shall take away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part out of the book of life, and out of the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book.
Of course, that's exactly the point. Conspiracy theory has no grounds, it's an unfounded and absurd conclusion. One can claim incompetence, impetuousness, bad eyesight, dittography, haplograhy etc.. But not a concerted effort to corrupt doctrine. ...at best, one could accuse the copyists of attempting to make our scriptures appear unreliable, ...that would be the only viable accusation under the evidence.
I don't think you're actually reading the texts provided, nor the question asked in response to your question, which answers your question by the method Christ Jesus used.I don't think you're actually interacting with me here, ReChoired. You're restating your position but not answering my question. These verses all further beg the question of why they would logically do so. What was your answer?
I see nothing wrong in reiterating the condition in Romans 8:1, but many use the shortened version of Romans 8:1 with a period after Jesus and never study past it, to where it is repeated. This is one reason we have to study in context.
As far as just applying 1 John 4:1 to every denomination you don't agree with is ludicrous. John was speaking of the Nicolaitans who were a sect of Gnostics, but you don't know that unless you read 1-3 in context, as you probably already know to point that out.
My biggest beef is with Westcott and Hort, not even the Alexandrians. There were so many discrepancies among those codices, who knows what is original. But to leave it in the hands of two men that don't even believe the words they are translating, I doubt that the Spirit was anywhere near them. By other beef is with the scholars who give their opinions of things being added, that were actually quoted - what? out of thin air??? They were deleted for some reason known only to those who were responsible. But all I have to do is see if what they say was added contradicts or confirms scripture to know which is correct.
I don't think you're actually reading the texts provided, nor the question asked in response to your question, which answers your question by the method Christ Jesus used.