How do you explain John 9:31
Why do people continue to throw a single verse out there as a foundation to build a belief on?
Here is the context....
The Pharisees were questioning a blind man whose sight had been restored by Jesus....
John 9 (KJV)
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²⁸ Then they reviled him, and said, Thou art his disciple; but we are Moses' disciples.
²⁹ We know that God spake unto Moses: as for this fellow, we know not from whence he is.
³⁰ The man answered and said unto them, Why herein is a marvellous thing, that ye know not from whence he is, and yet he hath opened mine eyes.
³¹ Now we know that God heareth not sinners: but if any man be a worshipper of God, and doeth his will, him he heareth.
³² Since the world began was it not heard that any man opened the eyes of one that was born blind.
³³ If this man were not of God, he could do nothing.
³⁴ They answered and said unto him, Thou wast altogether born in sins, and dost thou teach us? And they cast him out.
³⁵ Jesus heard that they had cast him out; and when he had found him, he said unto him, Dost thou believe on the Son of God?
³⁶ He answered and said, Who is he, Lord, that I might believe on him?
³⁷ And Jesus said unto him, Thou hast both seen him, and it is he that talketh with thee.
³⁸ And he said, Lord, I believe. And he worshipped him.
³⁹ And Jesus said, For judgment I am come into this world, that they which see not might see; and that they which see might be made blind.
As you read above the Pharisees claim to be Moses disciples and accused the man who was once blind to be Jesus disciple...
Now can you see the whole context of this passage?
It isn't about God hearing a sinners prayer...it is about seeing....verse 39 says for judgment He came into the world to blind the those who thought they could see....Law vs Jesus