Here’s a question for the group:
Why is it that in every single prophetic passage where Jesus speaks about AD 70 or the end times, he never once mentions this supposed evil supernatural being?
Take the Olivet Prophecy, for example.
What does the Lord actually say?
“Take heed that no man deceive you; for many shall come in my name, saying, I am Christ (Matt., Mark, Luke), and the time draweth near (Luke), and shall deceive many (Matt., Mark). Go not after them” (Luke).
This would have been the ideal moment for Jesus to introduce such a being, yet he doesn’t - not once!. Instead, he attributes the deception to people.
Why is it that all the persecution he speaks of refers to people, brother against brother, or authorities laying hands on believers etc, BUT never once is this so-called evil creature mentioned?
Isn’t that telling?
Is this an issue?
If there truly were a central, supernatural evil being, such as a fallen angel, directly orchestrating deception and persecution, then Jesus' silence on this figure in key prophetic teachings (like the Olivet Discourse in Matthew 24, Mark 13, and Luke 21) raises serious questions.
Instead of warning against a devilish power behind the scenes, Jesus consistently points to human deception, false teachers, and political and religious turmoil as the sources of danger and misguidance.
Have you misinterpreted the meaning of these words and failed to consider the true context in which they are used?