Did Jesus say that adultery is grounds for divorce? - Nope.

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St. SteVen

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Yep. That's what the verse states.
I see your confusion. Let me try to help you.

Fornication is sex.

If a spouse has sex with someone other than their spouse that is adultery.
Do you then take the position that Jesus was approving divorce for the reason of sexual immorality?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”

/ cc: @1stCenturyLady
 

BlessedPeace

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Do you then take the position that Jesus was approving divorce for the reason of sexual immorality?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”
Yes. Because I take The Word at His word.
 

St. SteVen

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Yes. Because I take The Word at His word.
LOL
There's an obvious contradiction here. How do you resolve it?
You take the position that Jesus was approving divorce for the reason of sexual immorality. But...
Jesus also says, "Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate."
So, which is it?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.

/
 

1stCenturyLady

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LOL
There's an obvious contradiction here. How do you resolve it?
You take the position that Jesus was approving divorce for the reason of sexual immorality. But...
Jesus also says, "Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate."
So, which is it?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.

/
What is missing is a certificate of divorce, so as written it appears to me it was discovered the first night.

Everyone will read this and interpret to their own benefit. I will err on the side of strict holiness. So whatever the truth really is, I will continue to not date just in case...
 
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BlessedPeace

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LOL
There's an obvious contradiction here. How do you resolve it?
You take the position that Jesus was approving divorce for the reason of sexual immorality. But...
Jesus also says, "Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate."
So, which is it?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.

/
There is no contradiction.
Your premise was in error from the start.

The only grounds for divorce is sexual immorality,which is Adultery.
 

St. SteVen

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There is no contradiction.
Your premise was in error from the start.

The only grounds for divorce is sexual immorality,which is Adultery.
But what about this scripture?
How can there be grounds for divorce when Jesus says NOT to separate what God has joined together?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.

/
 

BlessedPeace

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But what about this scripture?
How can there be grounds for divorce when Jesus says NOT to separate what God has joined together?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.

/
Do you think the passages in Mark nullify Jesus instruction in Matthew 19?
 
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1stCenturyLady

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Do you think the passages in Mark nullify Jesus instruction in Matthew 19?
What do you think is being said here? Mark 10:11-12

11 He said to them, “A man who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery against his wife.
12 In the same way, a woman who divorces her husband and marries another man commits adultery.”

Luke 16:18
“Any man who divorces his wife and marries another woman commits adultery; and the man who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Christians are not suppose to divorce.


cc: @St. SteVen
 
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St. SteVen

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St. SteVen said:
But what about this scripture?
How can there be grounds for divorce when Jesus says NOT to separate what God has joined together?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.

Do you think the passages in Mark nullify Jesus instruction in Matthew 19?
No. The other way around.
The Matthew passage quoted above supports my premise that Jesus is NOT giving grounds for divorce in Mark.
He is only allowing for the Jewish law in Mark, which has no relevance for today.

/
 

St. SteVen

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The Matthew passage quoted above supports my premise that Jesus is NOT giving grounds for divorce in Mark.
He is only allowing for the Jewish law in Mark, which has no relevance for today.
Does anyone today REFUSE to marry because of sexual immorality (fornication) before first marriage?
Nor do we refuse to remarry based on sexual activity prior.

God is putting couples together despite these things in their past. What do we make of this?

/ cc: @BlessedPeace @1stCenturyLady @amadeus @BarneyFife
 

amadeus

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Does anyone today REFUSE to marry because of sexual immorality (fornication) before first marriage?
Nor do we refuse to remarry based on sexual activity prior.

God is putting couples together despite these things in their past. What do we make of this?

/ cc: @BlessedPeace @1stCenturyLady @amadeus @BarneyFife
If any prior marriages occurred before meeting the Lord, should they matter? Would they not be marriages between dead people?
 
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TheHC

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Do you then take the position that Jesus was approving divorce for the reason of sexual immorality?
Yes, thank goodness! Otherwise, I’d have been forced to live with someone who was sleeping with other men.

Put yourself in that position…. Im sure you can see how loving it was for Jesus to allow that stipulation for ending a marriage! It’s the only one!

Could you continue with a spouse who broke that commitment?

What if, after marriage, your mate got into prostitution? Or bestiality?
Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”
Why is it “what God has joined together”, and not ‘whom’?
 

BlessedPeace

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St. SteVen said:
But what about this scripture?
How can there be grounds for divorce when Jesus says NOT to separate what God has joined together?

Matthew 19:6 NIV
So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.


No. The other way around.
The Matthew passage quoted above supports my premise that Jesus is NOT giving grounds for divorce in Mark.
He is only allowing for the Jewish law in Mark, which has no relevance for today.

/
I think the key to the passage is when Jesus refers to what God has joined together; a marriage covenant.
Rather than stating, whom God hath joined together.

When two becomes one in marriage and one of those two cheat,they've broken the covenant.
Which is why divorce is permitted.
 

St. SteVen

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If ant prior marriages occurred before meeting the Lord, should they matter? Would they not be marriages between dead people?
That's a great point.
And even between believers. God hates divorce, but he loves us more.
Divorce is a bad situation. God is in the business of restoring people in bad situations.

The world (and even the church) tries to make divorce a "scarlet letter", marking the victim for life.
God is there to accept and comfort us if we will but turn to him.

We have all heard the testimonies of what God has done and continues to do for us.
Like the song, "Way maker, miracle worker..."

1704971890986.jpeg

/
 
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St. SteVen

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Yes, thank goodness! Otherwise, I’d have been forced to live with someone who was sleeping with other men.

Put yourself in that position…. Im sure you can see how loving it was for Jesus to allow that stipulation for ending a marriage! It’s the only one!

Could you continue with a spouse who broke that commitment?

What if, after marriage, your mate got into prostitution? Or bestiality?
I'm not saying there aren't reasons and even the need for divorce.
But I don't believe that God ever approves.

And there are victims of divorce as well. Oftentimes the spouse makes the decision.

Why is it “what God has joined together”, and not ‘whom’?
That's an interesting question. What did God put together?

I guess we can be glad that he doesn't put divorcees asunder.
That's sounds worse.

/
 

St. SteVen

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I think the key to the passage is when Jesus refers to what God has joined together; a marriage covenant.
Rather than stating, whom God hath joined together.

When two becomes one in marriage and one of those two cheat,they've broken the covenant.
Which is why divorce is permitted.
Consider this.

Malachi 2:16 NKJV
“For the Lord God of Israel says
That He hates divorce,
For it covers one’s garment with violence,”
Says the Lord of hosts.
“Therefore take heed to your spirit,
That you do not deal treacherously.”

/
 

BlessedPeace

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Consider this.

Malachi 2:16 NKJV
“For the Lord God of Israel says
That He hates divorce,
For it covers one’s garment with violence,”
Says the Lord of hosts.
“Therefore take heed to your spirit,
That you do not deal treacherously.”

/
And yet, God let Moses write certificates of divorce. And Jesus said divorce on grounds of adultery is permitted.

Look, you are able to run this discussion into a great many pages as you argue hypotheticals,insert other excerpted scriptures,in order to insist your OP premise stands.

It doesn't.

It can't,ever.

Because all it takes to vacate your opinion is one statement from Christ wherein He states Adultery,sex,fornication,outside of the marriage, is the one exception to the overall prohibition against divorce.
And He did state that.

Jesus doesn't need to reiterate the statement in every passage wherein divorce is discussed for that grounds for divorce to remain enforced. He stated it was so,adultery allows for a divorce from the marriage contract.

The two become one. Yet when another one and another one enter into a marriage bed,or any bed with a spouse, the covenant of one is violated. Because one of those two people,or even both, left the other spouse to know another who is not their spouse.


Adultery is grounds for divorce. The only exception.

Word salads arguing how that can't be true doesn't make Jesus' word change from the fact,it is.

Have a blessed and peaceful day.
 
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