1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
No he didn't -- we still have a sinful nature even after the cross.
The Gospel provides for forgiveness of sins, adoption and the New Nature - but we still have the old one as well which is why Paul describes it as a struggle a battle - in Romans 7 and 1 Cor 9. "I buffet my body and make it my slave".
Oh, Bob, Romans 7 is about someone under the Law, like the Jews, BEFORE Christ, when they were still slaves to SIN. Paul isn't talking about a Christian there, but rather shows the contrast between the Law and the Spirit in chapter 8, the conclusion to his teaching on the law since chapter 1. Simply put, chapters 7 and 8 are contrasts. Chapter 7 shows how the Law is the ministry of death. Chapter 8, the ministry of the Spirit. Read this contrast in context - Romans 7:7 to Romans 8:9. Law vs. Spirit, SIN vs. freedom from SIN. Being in the flesh vs. not being in the flesh.
Paul, like John, uses present first person because they are Hebrew, and use Hebrew writing styles that may be confusing to us "westerners" who are used to the Greek style of writing construction. For instance, in Romans 7:9 Paul was not living at the time Moses received the law, but refers to himself as if he was. The "I" is referring to mankind. "I was alive once without the law, but when the commandment came (on Mt. Sinai), sin revived and I died.
John 8:34-36 "Jesus answered them, “Most assuredly, I say to you, whoever commits sin is a slave of sin. 35 And a slave does not abide in the house forever, but a son abides forever. 36 Therefore if the Son makes you free, you shall be free indeed.
No he didn't -- we still have a sinful nature even after the cross.
The Gospel provides for forgiveness of sins, adoption and the New Nature - but we still have the old one as well which is why Paul describes it as a struggle a battle - in Romans 7 and 1 Cor 9. "I buffet my body and make it my slave".
mankind has a sinful nature to this very day
the Bible "defines sin" as "Transgression of the LAW" 1 John 3:4 - by definition.
Your total misunderstanding of law vs. grace is why you can't see the contrasts in 1 John 3. No matter how many times it is shown to you you refuse to read past verse 4, when verse 5 gives you God's answer to verse 4. "And you know that He was manifested to take away our sins, and in Him there is no sin."
That is to deny the NEW Covenant which GOD says includes "The LAW of God written on the heart and mind" Jer 31:31-33, Hebrews 8:6-11
The Sabbath is not written on our hearts to obey specifics by the Spirit pertaining to one day a week, so it is not the Old Covenant Ten Commandments (all ten) that are written on our hearts. What is written on our hearts is to "love God with all your heart, soul, and strength, and your neighbor as yourself." Do this and you will not break the royal law - James 2:8 If you really fulfill the royal law according to the Scripture, “You shall love your neighbor as yourself,” you do well." BTW, the mention of specific commandments in James 2 are as examples, but here again James CONTRASTS those commandments with the law of liberty.
Do you know what the law of liberty is? Go back to John 8:34-36 again. Liberty from sin.
making stuff up again -- and mixing it with the Bible. in all ages the "wages of sin IS death"
in all ages "sin IS transgression of the LAW"
in all ages "mankind are sinners with a sinful nature"
Also, I wrote "Yes, SIN existed ever since Adam sinned, though not imputed to man until the law was given.
To which you said, Totally false.
Romans 4:15 "because the law brings about wrath; for where there is no law there is no transgression.
Romans 7:For apart from the law sin was dead. (it was not imputed) 9 I was alive once without the law, but when the commandment came (on Mt. Sinai), sin revived and I died. 10 And the commandment, which was to bring life, I found to bring death.
You call my paraphrases of the true meaning in Scripture to be creative writing, but they are no less true.