OSAS can’t reconcile their understanding of 1 John 2:19 with 1 John 2:24-25.
It can’t explain why John has to tell real anointed believers to let the word remain in them (and what will happen if they do) when he supposedly just said all real believers without exception will never fall away.
Why do people put a reference but not the passage, anyway? Is it because they don't want to take the effort? Don't want too much context? I don't know.
First, that missing context . . .
1 John 2:18-25 YLT
18) Little youths, it is the last hour; and even as ye heard that the antichrist doth come, even now antichrists have become many—whence we know that it is the last hour;
19) out of us they went forth, but they were not of us, for if they had been of us, they would have remained with us; but—that they might be manifested that they are not all of us.
20) And ye have an anointing from the Holy One, and have known all things;
21) I did not write to you because ye have not known the truth, but because ye have known it, and because no lie is of the truth.
22) Who is the liar, except he who is denying that Jesus is the Christ? this one is the antichrist who is denying the Father and the Son;
23) every one who is denying the Son, neither hath he the Father, he who is confessing the Son hath the Father also.
24)
Ye, then, that which ye heard from the beginning,
in you let it remain (present/active);
if in you may remain (aorist/active) that which from the beginning ye did hear,
ye also in the Son and in the Father shall remain (future/active),
25) and this is the promise that He did promise us—the life the age-during.
So given the presentation, here's my question. Are we thinking that vs. 24 somehow makes vs. 19 not true? That those who left, those who did not remain, where they then actually "of us"? To me that sort of answer is a contradition.
Vs. 24, "Ye, then, that which ye heard . . ." is "ye", here, of necessity to the text addressing only the born again? Is John somehow contradicting himself within the space of 6 verses? Or should we try to harmonize these passages WITHOUT negating one of them?
Is John telling the reader to allow what they've heard to remain in them, because having done that, they will remain in God. Isn't that the way to understand this passage both in harmony with other places, and matching exactly what is written?
I'm to allow the word to remain in me. I've allowed the word of truth to remain in me, and therefore I shall remain in the Father.
Much love!