Exposing!! The Corrupt Counterfeit (NIV) Bible, Verses That Have Been Tampered With!!

[reformed1689]

Actually, speaking of the NIV, I recently just got a new one that has the books (and chapters, where applicable) in chronological order, and not by the lack of rhyme & reason that the conventional Bibles have their Book order.

In fairness, there actually is rhyme and reason to the order that has become standard in Bibles. It is by literature type.

 

[DNB]

In fairness, there actually is rhyme and reason to the order that has become standard in Bibles. It is by literature type.

In the OT yes (TaNaKh), and as you probably know, in the NT, its by author then length with the epistles, and probably, popularity or some other convention with the Gospels.
My point was, no rhyme or reason as far as comprehension of the historical development and story goes. That is, chronology has a more rational structure than does length, or even subject, to some degree. ...to read Samuel simultaneously with the psalms, elucidates much more in the Psalms. That is how Acts is done, the epistles are added in the exact time line as the events in Acts occurred (prison epistle injected while Paul's in Cesarea & Rome).
Again, as an alternate study tool (but a great one). I totally promote reading multi versions.

 

[reformed1689]

In the OT yes (TaNaKh), and as you probably know, in the NT, its by author then length with the epistles, and probably, popularity or some other convention with the Gospels.

Actually, in the NT it is still by type primarily, then by author, length, etc.

You have the Gospels, then History, then the Epistles (and even these are divided between general, pastoral, etc.) and then the apocalypse.

 

[DNB]

Actually, in the NT it is still by type primarily, then by author, length, etc.

You have the Gospels, then History, then the Epistles (and even these are divided between general, pastoral, etc.) and then the apocalypse.

Yes, that's true, ...maybe i should've qualified rhyme or reason in the way that i meant it. It's not haphazard, but meaningless for historical comprehension and thought. Rarely does one watch a movie in such a manner, where all the fight scenes are at the start, all the drama in the middle, all the car scenes or transportation in another dedicated area. Thus, no rhyme or reason to following the movie as intended, or getting the most out of it.
That is, no Rhyme or Reason as to why they would do it that way, when there are more meaningful and useful options.

 

[Preacher4Truth]

I found this interesting (If you REALLY want to know why it wasn't included.):
Matthew 17:21 The Passion Translation (TPT)

21 But this kind of demon is cast out only through prayer and fasting.”[a]

Footnotes:
[a] Matthew 17:21 As translated from the Hebrew Matthew, Aramaic, and some Greek manuscripts. Many reliable Greek manuscripts do not have this verse, and it is not included in many modern translations.

How dare you see that the KJV is not the standard but the mss are.

 

[GerhardEbersoehn]

Here we see an entire verse missing from the NIV, why would you remove an entire verse out of the bible? Perhaps the writers are trying 2 hide something? Looks very suspicious 2 me!! Bible says in deu 4:2 you shall not add nor detract from the word of God.

Not that I am for the NIV-- not on your life, but, 20th century 'translations' usually are the reason for most corruptions, not the 'critical Texts' of 19th and 20th century collections of mostly newly discovered manuscripts.

In genuine cases of non-existence in certain Texts, it need not be that <writers are trying to hide something>; it is quite possible an entire verse in the AV can be missing in recent translation(s) not because it was <removed out of the bible>, but because it does not exist in recently discovered and therefore recently translated manuscript(s).

But more sure is the fact modern quasi translations--virtually every one of them--, are very <suspicious> and are the very solid and obvious and profitable reason and cause of <<detracting from the Word of God>>. There's no more such thing as 'soul winning'; Bible translation has become a money making racket.

 

[GerhardEbersoehn]

Nowhere are modern translations more corrupt than at the Passion chapters in the four Gospels, Mark 14 to 16, Matthew 26 to 28, Luke 22 to 24, John 13 to 20.

 

[reformed1689]

Not that I am for the NIV-- not on your life, but, 20th century 'translations' usually are the reason for most corruptions, not the 'critical Texts' of 19th and 20th century collections of mostly newly discovered manuscripts.

In genuine cases of non-existence in certain Texts, it need not be that <writers are trying to hide something>; it is quite possible an entire verse in the AV can be missing in recent translation(s) not because it was <removed out of the bible>, but because it does not exist in recently discovered and therefore recently translated manuscript(s).

But more sure is the fact modern quasi translations--virtually every one of them--, are very <suspicious> and are the very solid and obvious and profitable reason and cause of <<detracting from the Word of God>>. There's no more such thing as 'soul winning'; Bible translation has become a money making racket.

Ok, if these modern translatiosn are so corrupt, what doctrines have they actually changed? Answer: None. Conclusion? This whole thread is ridiculous.

 

[GerhardEbersoehn]

Ok, if these modern translatiosn are so corrupt, what doctrines have they actually changed? Answer: None. Conclusion? This whole thread is ridiculous.

Ok, doctrines are what men WANT to understand from the translations. That exactly is why no doctrines are changed by these new - fake - translations but, in fact, are entrenched yet deeper in the muddled minds of men.
This whole thread is indeed ridiculous because there are no specifics. I have tried to get closer to specifics, but it is clear everybody else here are specifically careful to avoid any specifics. Guilty conscience!

 

[reformed1689]

Nowhere are modern translations more corrupt than at the Passion chapters in the four Gospels, Mark 14 to 16, Matthew 26 to 28, Luke 22 to 24, John 13 to 20.

You say you want specifics, yet you make a general statement here. Can you be more specific?

 

[GerhardEbersoehn]

You say you want specifics, yet you make a general statement here. Can you be more specific?

A specific few... Mark 15:42 Matthew 27:57 Luke 23:50 John 19:31,38 Where is the "evening" in the NIV? It was approaching in the NIV; in the Nuwe Afrikaanse Bybel it had been late noon.

 

[DoveSpirit05]

You say you want specifics, yet you make a general statement here. Can you be more specific?

Some friendly advice!! I woudnt get into a debate about conjecture, waste of time!!

 

[reformed1689]

A specific few... Mark 15:42 Matthew 27:57 Luke 23:50 John 19:31,38 Where is the "evening" in the NIV? It was approaching in the NIV; in the Nuwe Afrikaanse Bybel it had been late noon.

Just looked in the NIV, Matt 27:57 says evening....not sure what your gripe is here.

 

[GerhardEbersoehn]

Just looked in the NIV, Matt 27:57 says evening....not sure what your gripe is here.

My gripe? READ mate, it says evening, CORRECT <approached> WRONG, and FALSE. But no 'conjecture' here, They knew what they were doing alright, they wanted the evening COMING, not Past.

 

[reformed1689]

My gripe? READ mate, it says evening, CORRECT <approached> WRONG, and FALSE. But no 'conjecture' here, They knew what they were doing alright, they wanted the evening COMING, not Past.

Then how would you translate the word ginomai in that passage?

 

[GerhardEbersoehn]

Then how would you translate the word ginomai in that passage?

The <word in that passage> is not <ginomai>, it's the Aorist Participle of 'ginomai', 'genomenehs'. And the KJV translated it with English Past Perfect perfectly. "Evening HAD come" or looking at John 19:31 comparing it with verse 38 "after these things", "had had come and ALREADY [ehdeh] had passed" cf. Mark 15:42 (an hour after sunset? Luke 22:14).

 

[Truther]

Here’s Verse comparisons between the (KJV) bible and the faulty (NIV) bible.

(KJV)
Matthew 17:21
However, this kind does not
go out except by prayer
and fasting.

(NIV)
Matthew 17:21
ooopppss!! Zilch!! Whole verse
missing, why???

Here we see an entire verse missing from the NIV, why would you remove an entire verse out of the bible? Perhaps the writers are trying 2 hide something? Looks very suspicious 2 me!! Bible says in deu 4:2 you shall not add nor detract from the word of God.

(KJV)
Mark 9:29
And he said unto them, This kind
can come forth by nothing, but
by prayer and fasting.





(NIV)
Mark 9:29
He replied, “This kind can come out only by prayer.

Now this is the time in the bible where the apostles in the bible couldnt cast a demon out of a child and then jesus came and cast it out of the child and the apostles then said 2 him how come we couldn't cast the demon out of the child and he said 2 them dis kind comes out by prayer and (fasting). Now in
the (KJV) it also says prayer and (fasting) but in the (NIV) it says prayer only, why is dis?

If you look at all through out history monks, priests and other types of religious people would fast mortify their flesh and 2 strengthen themselves spiritually so that it wud be easier for them 2 open themselves up 2 the spiritual realm and 2 communicate with God more effectively without any interference from any demonic forces then a person can perceive Gods word better.

When we fast we de-clutter our bodies and detoxify ourselves and drain away impurities from our systems which hence frees up our minds and also allows the holy spirit 2 move through us more easily.

Fasting is quite a big part of christianity and walking in the spirit and also quite a big part of
deliverance ministry, jesus also said we must deny our flesh, Matthew 16:24 so why has the (NIV) taken this out of the verse? its quite an important element. it raises alot of questions?

(KJV)
Romans 8:1
There is therefore now no condemnation to
them which are in Christ Jesus, (who walk
not after the flesh, but after the Spirit).

(NIV)
Romans 8:1
Therefore, there is now no condemnation for those
who are in Christ Jesus,

See the difference? wheres the 2nd part of the verse in the (NIV) version? Well lets look at the 1st part. (There is therefore now no condemnation to them which are in Christ Jesus). what does it mean 2 be in christ? does it mean 2 believe in him? well even the demons believe and tremble james 2:19. does it mean 2 follow christ? well 2 follow jesus is 2 deny urself and take up ur cross stated again in Matthew 16:24. or does it mean 2 walk as christ walked?

well the bible clearly shows that jesus walked in the spirit. Romans 8:8 Those controlled by the flesh cannot please God. and we know that jesus pleased the father Matthew 17:5 "This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him ".and john 8:29 the father have not left me alone coz i always do the things dat please him.

therefore we can conclude dat being in christ is 2 be in the spirit as he was, we must worship God in spirit and in truth john 4:24 also pauls main emphasis through out the NT is to be born again
(circumcised in the heart) and 2 be in the spirit!! gal 5:16. alot of people are being mislead by a tampering of the word and think their ok with God as long
as they just believe in christ without any form of repentance which is very evident in ur
average (so called christian) 2day! hence leaving dem with the idea dat they can also (sin) but call on jesus and its ok! its because of deception like dis dat many people are dammed and on their way 2 hell unfortunately Matthew 7:13

(KJV)
Romans 10:17
So then faith cometh by hearing, and
hearing by the word of God

(NIV)
Romans 10:17
Consequently, faith comes from hearing the message,
and the message is heard through the word about Christ.

here we have 2 completely different paragraphs. "faith comes by hearing, and hearing by the word of God" how does a person get saved? dont they have 2 hear the word!! and wat is the bible? isnt it Gods word? and isnt jesus christ the word dat became flesh? so dat would make the bible all about christ!! so why does the (NIV) say " hearing the message, and the message is heard through the word about Christ".

so wats dis so called message dat the (NIV) is talking about? i cant find it, i mean there are tones of messages in the bible anyway, some of dem are prophecys of jesus christ!! some are parables and some are just some other prophetic talk.

Anyway faith doesnt come by "hearing the message" faith comes by hearing the gospel which is the (good news) and the whole word of God which is the bible. so once again another twisting of the scriptures again!!

The NIV and all other modern translations are corrupt. They are all forced by law to change their words by around 50,000 to satisfy copyright laws.
Also, they are biased.
They make great fire starter though