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So explain the below verses
Matthew 8:28 "And when He was come to the other side into the country of the Gergesenes, there met Him two possessed with devils, coming out of the tombs, exceeding fierce, so that no man might pass by that way."
Matthew 8:29 "And, behold, they cried out, saying, "What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?"
No one can disagree with this meaning of the word "devil".
Diabolos
What does this mean?
As mentioned it is derived from diaballo, this is made up of two words:
1. dia - through
2. ballo - to strike, to pierce (as with an arrow)
Diaballo means to pierce through likened to a man‘s character when attacked by false charges of another his character is pierced through, this word diaballo means also to calumniate, which is to pierce through with the darts of slander. The idea behind this slander implies that the accusations are false, the term diabolos means false-accuser.
The proper meaning of the word diabolos is false-accuser, the improper meaning is ― devil, this improper interpretation having been first given by the translators of the Scriptures into Greek; a rendering Leigh remarks, nowhere else sampled (i.e., so used) in any Greek author. The derivation of this word thus proves that false-accuser, is the correct translation.
Therefore, unlike the term Satan, it is impossible to find anywhere in the Scripture of Truth a good "false accuser".
A contradiction of terms.
Insight
Nice try, Insight (or lack thereof)
The issue confronting you is how many verses you have to ignore to make your pet doctrines even feasibly true ;)
While you ponder these things
Should this view not strengthen your conclusion.
And John calling unto him two of his disciples sent them to Jesus, saying, Art thou he that should come? or look we for another? When the men were come unto him, they said John Baptist bath sent us unto thee, saying, Art thou he that should come? or look we for another? And in the same hour Jesus cured many of their infirmities and plagues, and of evil spirits; and unto many that were blind he gave sight. Then Jesus answering said unto them, go your way and tell John what things we have seen and heard: that the blind see, the lame walk, the lepers are cleansed, the deaf hear, the dead are raised, to the poor the gospel is preached. And blessed is he, whosoever shall not be offended in me. Luke 7:19,20,21,22,23.
For all those "unknown" illnesss 2000 years ago; what do you think they were called? And where did these sayings come from?
Its about reading the Bible carefully and not allowing preconceived ideas confuse the record.
Do you think it is curious that Jesus does not say, "Behold I cast out spirits"? if the doing of this was a positive reality, Christ would have pointed it out; for the writer adds, "he in the same hour cured many of their evil spirits:" but Jesus sends no message as to casting out of spirits. .The conclusion therefore is, that those possessed were afflicted with bodily and mental diseases, which Christ cured.
Hope this helps![]()
One of the ideas the mystical initiate fraternities teach is that there is no such entity as the devil or Satan, nor a place called hell. They use that very line of reasoning, claiming belief that the devil is real and that hell is real is based on primitive superstition, ignorance, and folklore. It's one of the strategies they use to get one of their newly initiated members to refuse God's Word that Satan is an actual entity, and that hell is a real place.
As a matter of fact, those mystical secret societies treat The Bible and Christianity as a backward 'blind faith' system, because they assume their supposed mastery of natural law as superior to faith in God and His Son.
By that, they actually point to 'their' misaligned faith in themselves and the things of this world, and indirectly in the god of this world.
The people trapped in those mystical systems have yet to figure out the devilish mind-control strategy that's being played upon them. If we Christians appeal to them using Faith and belief in God's Word as written, they think we're backwards and primitive, still having the mind of ancient primordial man, while they think they're dealing with actual reality through understanding natural laws and the workings of the universe.
In that sense, trying to explain God's mysteries to them is like trying to get an empirical scientist to prove the concept of love using a lab apparatus.
Let me show you why they were indeed evil spirits and not some diseased name from back in the day......
Matthew 8:29 "And, behold, they cried out, saying, "What have we to do with thee, Jesus, thou Son of God? art thou come hither to torment us before the time?"
To this point, Jesus Christ had never called Himself, "The Son of God", the evil spirits knew who He was, and identified Him as the Scriptures would. They also called His by name in Mark 3:11; "And unclean spirits, when they saw Him, fell down before Him, and cried, saying, "Thou art the Son of God." Even the evil spirits knew Christ and believed him.
Mark 3:12; "And He straitly charged them that they should not make Him known. They knew that the time was not yet for their confinement, and when that time does come, they will be dead. They knew that this one, Jesus Christ had the power to send them back. They also know that those that have believed and repented in the name of Jesus Christ, and are washed in the blood of the Lamb, have the authority in the name of Jesus Christ to order them back to that place. When that happens, it means death for them.
A simple disease would not make this fact known,Christ being the Son of God............
As you say,read carefully......[/left]
When you consider Jesus' language is consistant of that day:
Description
Language Used
Diagnosis of the day
Matt. 12:22
"possessed with a devil {demon}"
blind and dumb
Mark 5:1,2,3,4,5
"a man with an unclean spirit"
insanity,schizophrenia?
Mark 9:17,18,19,20,21,22,23,24,25,26,27
"hath a dumb spirit"
epilepsy
Luke 13:11,12,13,14,15,16,17
"spirit of infirmity"
arthritis
John 10:20; Mark 3:21 where "he hath a devil and is mad" means "he is beside himself."
Patients today show the same symptoms as those said to be possessed with demons in New Testament times.
How can the patient's who recover with assitence of medicine and therapy be explained today?
Are you suggesting pills cast out demons?
And to prove without any doubt your theory is incorrect take careful note of what happened when Legion was cured.
How is Legion described?
"clothed and in his right mind." (Mark 5:15).
This implies that his affliction was insanity and not some other evil source.
Insight
An insane person would not have known that Christ was the Son of God,that was my point......
To this point, Jesus Christ had never called Himself, "The Son of God", the evil spirits knew who He was, and identified Him as the Scriptures would. They also called His by name in Mark 3:11; "And unclean spirits, when they saw Him, fell down before Him, and cried, saying, "Thou art the Son of God." Even the evil spirits knew Christ and believed him.
As we continue through the passages identifying human false accusers it is doubtless you will begin to see why so many diligent Bible Students are putting of the mystical in place of logical sound Bible Truth.
Here is another example:
And unto the angel of the church in Smyrna write: These things saith the first and the last, which was dead and is alive; I know thy works, and tribulation, and poverty (but thou art rich), and the blasphemy of them which say they are Jews, and are not, but are the synagogue of Satan. Fear none of those thinks which thou shalt suffer: behold, the devil shall cast some of you into prison, that ye may be tried: and ye shall have tribulation ten days: be thou faithful unto death, and I will give thee a crown of
life, Rev 2:8, 9, 10.
It is certain that the devil, an invisible agent, could not cast them (that is, human bodies) into prison, but a diabolos, a false-accuser, by branding them with charges before a civil magistrate, could do so.
You would have to be Scriptually negligent to suggest this diabolos are human beings (false accusers) is proved by the preceding verse, wherein they are described as Jews, and are not, but are the Synagogue, or the assembly, of the adversary (tou Satanas - the Translators have left out the tou “thee”, which is before Satan, which latter means adversary).
The passage is absolutely clear when saying “Fear none of these things, which thou shalt suffer: behold, the false-accuser shall cast some of you into prison, that ye may be tried”.
Insight
Why not?
Do I have you on record saying a person with insanity or schizophrenia cannot understand the Gospel nor come to a knowledge of God?
Be very care here N2thelight.
Insight