Folks are tired of a reformation and hunger for a transformation, which Acts 2:38 will provide

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mailmandan

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Of course, Acts 2.41 shows that it's not baptism that makes the person become a believer, but 'they that gladly received his word were baptised': they gladly received it because they believed, and so they were baptised.
Water baptism “follows” believes unto salvation/souls added.

Acts 2:41 - Then those who gladly received his word (through repentance/faith) were (afterwards) baptized; and that day about three thousand souls were added to them.

Acts 4:4 - However, many of those who heard the word believed; and the number of the men came to be about five thousand.

Acts 5:14 - And believers were increasingly added to the Lord, multitudes of both men and women.
 

Truther

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Water baptism “follows” believes unto salvation/souls added.

Acts 2:41 - Then those who gladly received his word (through repentance/faith) were (afterwards) baptized; and that day about three thousand souls were added to them.

Acts 4:4 - However, many of those who heard the word believed; and the number of the men came to be about five thousand.

Acts 5:14 - And believers were increasingly added to the Lord, multitudes of both men and women.
Were those in verse 41 baptized for the remission of their sins as Peter commanded in verse 38?

Or, did he have a change of heart that day?
 
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Ziggy

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I have a question...

Death came through Adam's seed upon all mankind.
Physical right?

Life came through Christ's seed upon those he came in contact with.. meaning breathed on them.
Spiritual right?

If death was begotten generation by generation without having to also eat of the tree of knowledge, because Adam ate it once for all time,
Then these 12 Apostles... had children.. they first had life, the firstfruits...
Then why wouldn't life be begotten through them generation by generation, without having to have the Hoy Spirit fall on us?
Why couldn't we be born with the Light already in us... some... those that's parentage goes all the way back to Acts?

Isa 59:21 As for me, this is my covenant with them, saith the LORD; My spirit that is upon thee, and my words which I have put in thy mouth, shall not depart out of thy mouth, nor out of the mouth of thy seed, nor out of the mouth of thy seed's seed, saith the LORD, from henceforth and for ever.

just thinking...
hugs
 

user

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See post #20.


Really ... you wish someone to read that stale old "copy and paste"?

I addressed that issue in previous threads. Peter had just finished proclaiming to the onlookers that they were responsible for crucifying their promised messiah. This realization convicted their heart of sin, prompting them to ask the disciples, "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" They were seeking to know what they could do to be forgiven of the sin which they came to recognize they were guilty of.

Peter's response in Acts 2:38 was to repent and be baptized for the remission of their sins, and then receive the Spirit. If eis means "in reference to," we must conclude that Peter never answered their question. If eis does not mean at this point "in order to obtain," nothing in this verse is connected with the purpose of obtaining forgiveness, including repentance. In the context of Peter's sermon he is commanding his hearers to take specific action that will result in the forgiveness of their sins. At the point he made his commands, their sins were not yet forgiven. Only if eis expresses purpose would their question have been answered.
 

mailmandan

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Really ... you wish someone to read that stale old "copy and paste"?

I addressed that issue in previous threads. Peter had just finished proclaiming to the onlookers that they were responsible for crucifying their promised messiah. This realization convicted their heart of sin, prompting them to ask the disciples, "Men and brethren, what shall we do?" They were seeking to know what they could do to be forgiven of the sin which they came to recognize they were guilty of.

Peter's response in Acts 2:38 was to repent and be baptized for the remission of their sins, and then receive the Spirit. If eis means "in reference to," we must conclude that Peter never answered their question. If eis does not mean at this point "in order to obtain," nothing in this verse is connected with the purpose of obtaining forgiveness, including repentance. In the context of Peter's sermon he is commanding his hearers to take specific action that will result in the forgiveness of their sins. At the point he made his commands, their sins were not yet forgiven. Only if eis expresses purpose would their question have been answered.
There is nothing stale about properly harmonizing scripture with scripture in order to reach the properly conclusion on doctrine and the truth. Your biased interpretation of your pet verse does not negate (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). In Matthew 3:11, we read - "I baptize you with water FOR repentance." Now did John baptize with water "in order to obtain" repentance or "in regards to/in reference to/on the basis of" repentance? Obviously the latter.

So once again, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
 

user

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There is nothing stale about properly harmonizing scripture with scripture in order to reach the properly conclusion on doctrine and the truth. Your biased interpretation of your pet verse does not negate (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). In Matthew 3:11, we read - "I baptize you with water FOR repentance." Now did John baptize with water "in order to obtain" repentance or "in regards to/in reference to/on the basis of" repentance? Obviously the latter.

So once again, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.


Your reply is ANOTHER "copy and paste"
 

mailmandan

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Your reply is ANOTHER "copy and paste"
From the same post I previously posted. Why should I change up what I said when it’s the truth or type out every letter and number from my previous post all over again when I can simply copy and paste it faster? As long as you continue to isolate your pet verse and build doctrine on it without properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine, then you will never reach the truth.
 

user

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From the same post I previously posted. Why should I change up what I said when it’s the truth or type out every letter and number from my previous post all over again when I can simply copy and paste it faster? As long as you continue to isolate your pet verse and build doctrine on it without properly harmonizing Scripture with Scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine, then you will never reach the truth.


Your self proclaimed "harmonizing Scripture" is a train wreck.
Allow me to refresh your memory. On a previous post, YOU said...


You obviously do not understand how to properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine.

If we don't repent then we will not believe the gospel and become saved. Repent "change of mind" - (new direction of that change of mind) - believe the gospel. Two sides to the same coin.


If this is YOUR idea of "harmonizing scripture", then you are clearly derailed off into the ravine up in flames.
 

mailmandan

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Your self proclaimed "harmonizing Scripture" is a train wreck.
Allow me to refresh your memory. On a previous post, YOU said...

If this is YOUR idea of "harmonizing scripture", then you are clearly derailed off into the ravine up in flames.
It’s your flawed hermeneutics and your perverted water gospel that’s a train wreck.
 

user

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It’s your flawed hermeneutics and your perverted water gospel that’s a train wreck.


This is what YOU call "perverted"...

Mark 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
[16] He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
[17] And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;

John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
 
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Truther

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There is nothing stale about properly harmonizing scripture with scripture in order to reach the properly conclusion on doctrine and the truth. Your biased interpretation of your pet verse does not negate (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). In Matthew 3:11, we read - "I baptize you with water FOR repentance." Now did John baptize with water "in order to obtain" repentance or "in regards to/in reference to/on the basis of" repentance? Obviously the latter.

So once again, in Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first. Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
You debunked Peter again.

Clever but not wise.
 

Truther

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This is what YOU call "perverted"...

Mark 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
[16] He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
[17] And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;

John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.

Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Have you noticed that we(Acts adherers) take the scriptures literally and the Acts skippers take them figuratively?
 

Truther

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It’s your flawed hermeneutics and your perverted water gospel that’s a train wreck.
16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned....

21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:

Are Jesus and Peter perverted too?
 

Truther

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See post #20.
You said....

Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins".


Peter said...

38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.

You put me in a tough position as to whether or not I should believe you or Peter.:eek:
 

Ziggy

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I'm curious..
The woman who washed Jesus' feet with her tears...
Where did she get baptized?
Luk 7:50 And he said to the woman, Thy faith hath saved thee; go in peace.

The blind beggar man yelling out to Jesus in the crowd..
When did he get baptized?
Luk 18:42 And Jesus said unto him, Receive thy sight: thy faith hath saved thee.

Eph 2:8 For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God:

Act 19:1 And it came to pass, that, while Apollos was at Corinth, Paul having passed through the upper coasts came to Ephesus: and finding certain disciples,
Act 19:2 He said unto them, Have ye received the Holy Ghost since ye believed? And they said unto him, We have not so much as heard whether there be any Holy Ghost.
Act 19:3 And he said unto them, Unto what then were ye baptized? And they said, Unto John's baptism.
Act 19:4 Then said Paul, John verily baptized with the baptism of repentance, saying unto the people, that they should believe on him which should come after him, that is, on Christ Jesus.
Act 19:5 When they heard this, they were baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
Act 19:6 And when Paul had laid his hands upon them, the Holy Ghost came on them; and they spake with tongues, and prophesied.
Act 19:7 And all the men were about twelve.

I don't see any water here...

I see them being baptized in the name of the Lord though.

Just saying..
Hugs
 

mailmandan

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This is what YOU call "perverted"...
Salvation by water baptism is a perverted gospel.

Mark 16:15 And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to every creature.
[16] He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned.
[17] And these signs shall follow them that believe; In my name shall they cast out devils; they shall speak with new tongues;
Jesus clarifies the first clause with "but he who does not believe will be condemned." So he who believes and is baptized is general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized. Did Jesus forget to mention water baptism in (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26)? What is the one requirement that Jesus mentions multiple times in each of these passages of scripture? *BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.

John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.

John 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
To automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted. Plain ordinary H20 is not the only water mentioned in scripture. Jesus mentions living water in John 4:10, 14; 7:37-39 and connects it with eternal life. In John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. The Holy Spirit is the source of living water and spiritual cleansing. If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If that sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again.

Also "water" is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23) and the Holy Spirit accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. (Titus 3:5)

Acts 22:16 And now why tarriest thou? arise, and be baptized, and wash away thy sins, calling on the name of the Lord.
No Scripture is to be interpreted in isolation from the totality of Scripture. Practically speaking, a singular and obscure verse is to be subservient to to multiple and clear verses, and not vice versa. Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary makes not of the importance of the Greek in Ananias' statement. When Ananias tells Paul to "arise, be baptized, wash away your sins, calling on the name of the Lord," the tense of the last command is literally "having called" (aorist middle participle). "Calling on [epikalesamenos] --- 'having (that is, after having) called on,' referring the confession of Christ which preceded baptism." [Jamison, Fausset, and Brown Commentary, vol. 3 pg. 160] Kenneth Wuest picks up on this Greek nuance and translates the verse as follows: "And now, why are you delaying? Having arisen, be baptized and wash away your sins, having previously called upon His Name." (Acts 22:16, Wuest's Expanded NT)

In Acts 22:16, how did baptism "wash away" Paul's sins? Well, it couldn't do this literally, for Christ literally "put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself." (Hebrews 9:26) The language in Acts 22:16 is similar to the statement of Christ when He took the bread and said, "This is my body" (Matthew 26:26). The bread was the emblem of His body and not literally His body. Baptism is the emblem of the washing away of sins by the death of Christ. Every time a believer is immersed in water he washes away his sins in the same sense Paul did. Not literally, but ceremonially, pointing to the death of Christ by which sins are actually washed away. Therefore to take Paul's statement in Acts 22:16 as anything more than a metaphor is to confuse the symbolic rite with what the rite represents.

Excellent article on Acts 22:16 - WHAT IS TRUTH: Acts 22:16--Baptism Essential for Salvation? :)

Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Again, see post #20. *HERMENEUTICS*
 

mailmandan

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You debunked Peter again.

Clever but not wise.
Acts 10:43 - All the prophets testify of Him, that through His name everyone who believes in Him receives forgiveness of sins. 44 While Peter was still speaking these words, the Holy Spirit fell upon all those who were listening to the message. 45 All the Jewish believers who came with Peter were amazed, because the gift of the Holy Spirit had also been poured out on the Gentiles. 46 For they were hearing them speaking with tongues and exalting God. *(BEFORE WATER BAPTISM)* Then Peter responded, 47 “Surely no one can refuse the water for these to be baptized, who have received the Holy Spirit just as we did, can he?”

I debunked you. Let me know when you are ready to believe the gospel. (Romans 1:16; 1 Corinthians 15:1-4)
 

mailmandan

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16 He that believeth and is baptized shall be saved; but he that believeth not shall be damned....
See post #38.

21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
In 1 Peter 3:21, Peter tells us that baptism now saves you, yet when Peter uses this phrase he continues in the same sentence to explain exactly what he means by it. He said that baptism now saves you-not the removal of dirt from the flesh (that is, not as an outward, physical act which washes dirt from the body--that is not what saves you), "but an appeal to God for a good conscience, through the resurrection of Jesus Christ" (that is, as an inward, spiritual transaction between God and the individual, a transaction that is symbolized by the outward ceremony of water baptism).

*Just as the eight people in the ark were "saved THROUGH water" as they were IN THE ARK. They were not literally saved "by" the water. Hebrews 11:7 is clear on this point (..built an ARK for the SAVING of his household). The context reveals that ONLY the righteous (Noah and his family) were DRY and therefore SAFE. In contrast, only the wicked came in contact with the water and they all perished.

Are Jesus and Peter perverted too?
They are not perverted, but your watered down gospel is.