How can Premils possibly be wrong that there is a gap between 1 Cor 15:23 and 1 Cor 15:24?

[Davidpt]

1 Corinthians 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

If this is meaning in the end of this present age, and surely it is---afterward they that are Christ's at his coming---when is this meaning in relation to that---Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power?

Before we get started here, surely no one would deny that once verse 24 is fulfilled that it is then meaning what verse 28 records, right?

Let's call this A)---they that are Christ's at his coming.

And let's call this B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28.

Let's start with verse 25 for now---For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.

Is this applicable before B) is fulfilled? Is this still applicable after B) has been fulfilled? If the answer is the former rather than the latter, this alone is already proving that there is a gap between A) and B) if verse 25 is applicable all the way up until when B) is fulfilled, but is no longer applicable once B) is fulfilled.

The question then is, what is the length of the gap? One way to determine that is by comparing with other Scriptures then asking some of these same questions in regards to A) and B).

Some might argue, doesn't Christ reign forever and ever, though? How then can His reign end when B) is fulfilled? This is where context can help us here. He only quits reigning in the sense involving subduing His enemies, and involving judgment, those kind of things. Clearly, once B) is fulfilled He will never be doing those kinds of things ever again, therefore, He no longer needs to reign in that sense, thus explaining why there is a 'till' in 1 Corinthians 15:25 but that it doesn't contradict that He reigns forever and ever.


Will have to start comparing with other Scriptures then asking some of these same questions in regards to A) and B) in posts that follow rather than in the OP here since the OP is getting lengthy as is. Keeping in mind that this is to try and help determine the length of the gap between A) and B), because surely no one can deny that there is a gap between those events. Thus that can't be debatable, thus can't be denied, that there is a gap between A) and B). What is obviously debatable though, is the length of the gap.

 

[Davidpt]

Let's call this A)---they that are Christ's at his coming(1 Corinthians 15:23) .

And let's call this B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28.


Let's now consider the following passage.

Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Before we can start asking questions pertaining to this verse in regards to A) and B), it's best to first see when other Scriptures are indicating that He initially sits in the throne of His glory and where He does that.

Matthew 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:
33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.


It can't get any plainer than this unless one wants to argue that it's generally not a good idea to interpret Scripture with Scripture. Matthew 25:31 indicates that Matthew 19:28 is meaning when the Son of man shall come in His glory, and all the holy angels with Him. Obviously then, the time frame involving Matthew 19:28 begins with A)--they that are Christ's at his coming(1 Corinthians 15:23).

It should be a no brainer as to where He is coming to per Matthew 25:31. The earth, obviously. That then tells us thus far that Matthew 19:28 is meaning as of A) and that these events will be taking place on the earth.

It is then a question of where does Matthew 19:28 fit in relation to B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28?

in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Since we know that that begins with A), what about when B) is fulfilled? IOW, is this still taking place after B) is fulfilled---the regeneration, when ye that have followed Him, shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. Or is that instead only meaning during the gap between A) and B)?

Unless someone can convincingly argue why it would be reasonable to take that to still be taking place after B) is fulfilled, thus for forever, the latter is obviously the only reasonable conclusion to arrive at, that Matthew 19:28 is only meaning during the gap between A) and B).

How long should we assume Matthew 19:28 involves? A single 24 hour day or less? Or more than a single 24 hour day? If the former, one then needs to explain how that is perfectly reasonable that Matthew 19:28 only involves a single 24 hour day or less? If the latter, obviously something has to be able to explain this time frame after A) but prior to B). Premil can obviously explain this time frame, but can Amil as well?

 

[Keraz]

surely no one would deny that once verse 24 is fulfilled that it is then meaning what verse 28 records, right?

Wrong.
Gods 7000 year plan for mankind; has another thousand years to run, after Jesus Returns. We are at present close to the 6000 year point.

Firstly; I wish posters would not use the KJV with its archaic language and many translation errors. There's enough confusion without that.

1 Corinthians 15:23-24 has that 1000 year gap, proved by verses 25-26, where He will reign until all His enemies are disposed of and the final enemy is Death.
This final destruction of all Gods enemies is: when that thousand years has ended, as described in Revelation 20:7-10
The end of Death comes after the final Judgment and in Eternity. Revelation 21:4

The AMill belief is so clearly wrong, with Satan still around, like a roaring lion, stirring up wars and rampant crime. When King Jesus reigns over the world, we will surely know about it and as Zechariah 14:16-21 says, will be required to go to worship Him in Jerusalem.

 

[Davidpt]

Wrong.
Gods 7000 year plan for mankind; has another thousand years to run, after Jesus Returns. We are at present close to the 6000 year point.

Firstly; I wish posters would not use the KJV with its archaic language and many translation errors. There's enough confusion without that.

1 Corinthians 15:23-24 has that 1000 year gap, proved by verses 25-26, where He will reign until all His enemies are disposed of and the final enemy is Death.
This final destruction of all Gods enemies is: when that thousand years has ended, as described in Revelation 20:7-10
The end of Death comes after the final Judgment and in Eternity. Revelation 21:4

The AMill belief is so clearly wrong, with Satan still around, like a roaring lion, stirring up wars and rampant crime. When King Jesus reigns over the world, we will surely know about it and as Zechariah 14:16-21 says, will be required to go to worship Him in Jerusalem.

As far as me or anyone using the KJV, I'm going to continue to use it, regardless. I like the translation and trust it for the most post. That aside. Why in the world would you be disagreeing that once verse 24 is fulfilled, that it then equals what verse 28 records? Obviously, verse 24 can't be fulfilled before Revelation 20:11-15 is fulfilled first. Regardless when Revelation 20:11-15 is fullfilled, be that during the 2nd coming, or a thousand years post the 2nd coming, my position being the latter, it then means verse 24 is meaning after Revelation 20:11-15 is fullfilled, and that it means verse 24 equals what is recorded in verse 28. How could it not?

 

[Zao is life]

Let's call this A)---they that are Christ's at his coming(1 Corinthians 15:23) .

And let's call this B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28.


Let's now consider the following passage.

Matthew 19:28 And Jesus said unto them, Verily I say unto you, That ye which have followed me, in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Before we can start asking questions pertaining to this verse in regards to A) and B), it's best to first see when other Scriptures are indicating that He initially sits in the throne of His glory and where He does that.

Matthew 25:31 When the Son of man shall come in his glory, and all the holy angels with him, then shall he sit upon the throne of his glory:
32 And before him shall be gathered all nations: and he shall separate them one from another, as a shepherd divideth his sheep from the goats:
33 And he shall set the sheep on his right hand, but the goats on the left.


It can't get any plainer than this unless one wants to argue that it's generally not a good idea to interpret Scripture with Scripture. Matthew 25:31 indicates that Matthew 19:28 is meaning when the Son of man shall come in His glory, and all the holy angels with Him. Obviously then, the time frame involving Matthew 19:28 begins with A)--they that are Christ's at his coming(1 Corinthians 15:23).

It should be a no brainer as to where He is coming to per Matthew 25:31. The earth, obviously. That then tells us thus far that Matthew 19:28 is meaning as of A) and that these events will be taking place on the earth.

It is then a question of where does Matthew 19:28 fit in relation to B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28?

in the regeneration when the Son of man shall sit in the throne of his glory, ye also shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel.

Since we know that that begins with A), what about when B) is fulfilled? IOW, is this still taking place after B) is fulfilled---the regeneration, when ye that have followed Him, shall sit upon twelve thrones, judging the twelve tribes of Israel. Or is that instead only meaning during the gap between A) and B)?

Unless someone can convincingly argue why it would be reasonable to take that to still be taking place after B) is fulfilled, thus for forever, the latter is obviously the only reasonable conclusion to arrive at, that Matthew 19:28 is only meaning during the gap between A) and B).

How long should we assume Matthew 19:28 involves? A single 24 hour day or less? Or more than a single 24 hour day? If the former, one then needs to explain how that is perfectly reasonable that Matthew 19:28 only involves a single 24 hour day or less? If the latter, obviously something has to be able to explain this time frame after A) but prior to B). Premil can obviously explain this time frame, but can Amil as well?

The Amills in this board would be arguing with the author of the letter to the Hebrews if he had to post the following in these boards:

"But of this present time [nŷn] we see not yet all things put under him." Hebrews 2:8

If Jesus were to post the following into these boards, Amils would be arguing with Him for implying that until He returns He will not be reigning in this world:

"My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews:

but of this present time [nŷn] is my kingdom not from hence." John 18:36.

They would be arguing with John for posting:

"And the seventh angel sounded. And there were great voices in Heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world have become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ. And He will reign forever and ever." Revelation 11:15.

Imagine how red the faces of all these Amillennialists are going to be when Jesus, the author of the letter to the Hebrews, and John the apostle tell them that what is written is an accurate record of both what they said and what they meant, and there should never have been any question introduced by their theology about whether or not they meant the opposite of what is written.

Imagine how embarrassed all Amillennialists are going to be when Jesus, shaking His head at their silliness, explains the obvious and logical fact that the Kingdom of Christ within us does not mean Christ has taken His place as King and is reigning as King over all the earth yet.

"Coming together, they asked Him, saying, Lord, do You at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?
And He said to them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father has put in His own authority.

But you shall receive power, the Holy Spirit coming upon you. And you shall be witnesses to Me both in Jerusalem and in all Judea, and in Samaria, and to the end of the earth.

And saying these things, as they watched, He was taken up. And a cloud received Him out of their sight. And while they were looking intently into the heaven, He having gone, even behold, two men in white clothing stood beside them,
11 who also said, Men of Galilee, why do you stand gazing up into the heaven?

This same Jesus who is taken up from you into Heaven, will come in the way you have seen Him going into Heaven."
Acts 1:6-11

"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be proclaimed in all the world as a witness to all nations. And then the end shall come." Matthew 24:14

But you shall receive power, the Holy Spirit coming upon you. And you shall be witnesses to Me both in Jerusalem and in all Judea, and in Samaria, and to the end of the earth.

21 For since death is through man, the resurrection of the dead also is through a Man.
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all will be made alive.
23 But each in his own order: Christ the first-fruit, and afterward they who are Christ's at His coming;
24 then is the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God, even the Father; when He makes to cease all rule and all authority and power.
25 for it is right for Him to reign until He has put all the enemies under His feet.
1 Corinthians 15

"But of this present time [nŷn] we see not yet all things put under him." Hebrews 2:8

26 The last enemy made to cease is death.
27 For He put all things under His feet. But when He says that all things have been put under His feet, it is plain that it excepts Him who has put all things under Him.
28 But when all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subject to Him who has subjected things to Him, so that God may be all things in all.
1 Corinthians 15.

It just beggars belief how all Amillennialists came to, and continue to make the crazy assumption that Christ has already taken His seat as King and judge in this world just because He could have, following His resurrection (since He is King of the Universe and judge of all). They've spiritualized the gospel of the kingdom completely out of its meaning. I'm convinced that gnostic Greek and Roman mindsets are the origins of their false doctrines. It's sad that such a big portion of the church has been made drunk in this delusion.

 

[WPM]

If this is meaning in the end of this present age, and surely it is---afterward they that are Christ's at his coming---when is this meaning in relation to that---Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power?

Before we get started here, surely no one would deny that once verse 24 is fulfilled that it is then meaning what verse 28 records, right?

Let's call this A)---they that are Christ's at his coming.

And let's call this B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28.

Let's start with verse 25 for now---For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.

Where do you get a thousand years in 1 Corinthians 15:20-28? It is simply not there. You have to force it into the text. This is one of the most troubling aspects of Premil. It is always adding to the sacred text. This is strictly forbidden in Scripture. 1 Corinthians 15 proves Amil.

Paul confirms the finality of the return of Jesus, in 1 Corinthians 15:20-28 says: “now is Christ risen from the dead, and become the firstfruits of them that slept. For (or gar or seeing) since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For (or gar or seeing) as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at His coming [Gr. parousia]. Then cometh the end [Gr. telos], when ‘he shall have delivered up’ the kingdom to God, even the Father; when ‘he shall have put down’ all rule and all authority and power. For (or gar or seeing) he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For (or gar or seeing) ‘he hath put’ (aorist active indicative) all things under his feet. But when he saith, all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him (speaking of the second coming), then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all” (1 Corinthians 15:25-28).

Please note the careful correlation between the parousia and the telos. This is a truth that is found throughout the NT. They are synonymous with each other. There is absolutely nothing that Premillennialists can do with such a clear and climactic passage apart from deny the obvious or add unto Scripture by inserting “a thousand years” in-between the coming (parousia) of Christ and the end (telos) where it does not belong. This is the dilemma for Premil throughout the Word. They are fighting the obvious.

The Greek simply reads:

Christos – Christ
en – at
autos – His
parousia – coming
eita – then
telos – the end

The coming of the Lord is shown to be the end of the world. There is no gap of time in-between the coming of Christ, the resurrection and the end. They all belong to the one final climactic overall event.

The phrase “he shall have delivered up” comes from the single Greek word paradidomi meaning surrender, yield up, intrust, or transmit. This is what happens to the kingdom when Christ comes. He surrenders it to His Father, He yields it up.

The converse phrase “he shall have put down” comes from the single Greek word katargeo meaning: bring to nought, none effect, or abolish. This is what happens to “all” existing “rule and all authority and power” when Jesus Comes. The rule of man comes to an end and now it becomes the rule of God.

"For"

Firstly, the usage of the word “for” in this reading simply tells us that what follows is a deduction drawn from what has previously been stated. The repeated usage of the word “for” in this reading demonstrates what is being spoken of is an inference to what has just been stated. In this particular passage, the Greek word gar links and then further expands upon the fact that the Second Advent is the time “when he (Christ) shall have (finally) put down all rule and all authority and power.” The Greek word ‘gar’, which interprets and carries the same meaning as our English word “for” is used as a key constituent part of the previous statement or subject matter, to simply allocate a fuller enlargement or reinforcement of the matter just mentioned. The word is mainly used for the purpose of argument, explanation or intensification.

Christ, the Old Testament prophets and the New Testament writers repeatedly enlarge on a truth or recap a matter when relaying truth. This is a common way of teaching. That is all Paul is doing here. After explaining the finality of the second coming he then explains that he will reign until the last enemy is subdued.

Even though it might not seem it at times, God has got his providential hand on our lives. Moment by moment he watches over us. With a Father’s eye He sovereignly brings circumstances and situations into our lives at the right time in order to conform us unto His purposes. When we disobey, He takes the rod of correction to the seat of our understanding.

Second, 1 Corinthians 15:22-24 tells us that “all rule and all authority and power” are finally “put down” or katargeésee or abolished at the “coming” or parousia of the Lord, which is, as we have established, confirmed in the next sentence as “the end.” The kingdom of God is finally and eternally presented “up,” whereas the kingdom of darkness is finally and eternally “put down.” It is this all-consummating last day that ushers in the end (or completion) of all things.

Premils delay the moment when “all things shall be subdued unto him” by 1,000 years, holding that “the bondage of corruption” with all its awful facets like sin death and decay is only eliminated 1,000 years after the coming of the Lord. They therefore postpone the final “put down” of all “all rule and all authority and power” till after the Gog / Magog battle in Revelation 20, where they insist Christ finally removes all wickedness from the earth. However, that is not what is being intimated in this passage. This reading actually locates all this at the Lord’s “coming.” It is there that “all things shall be subdued unto him” (1 Corinthians 15:28), “when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power” (1 Corinthians 15:24).

Third, Scripture repeatedly presents a truth and then explains or enlarges upon that truth. After telling us that Christ’s Advent in glory sees the termination of the wicked and their evil operations, the writer tells us that Christ’s reign over His enemies must continue until this climactic point. Whilst “all power” is now assuredly given unto Christ “in heaven and in earth” (Matthew 28:18) through His life, death and resurrection, and whilst through this victorious work “he hath put all things under his feet” in a sovereign manner, we have not yet seen the final subduing of wickedness. This comes at the second coming of the Lord.

Paul is simply reinforcing the thought that he just stated about the climactic coming of Christ. It is the time “when he shall have put down (or abolished) all rule and all authority and power.” 1 Corinthians 15 verses 24 and 28 repeat the same all-consummating truth.

For Christ to be reigning over His enemies does not in any way suggest these foes are finally and effectively subjugated unto the Lord. No; no more than the rebellious subjects of an earthly monarch who are determined to overthrow the rule of that leader would be considered not to be under the rule of that said king or queen. Whether they like it or not and whether they believe it or not they are subject to the ruler and his laws.

 

[Truth7t7]

surely no one can deny that there is a gap between those events. Thus that can't be debatable, thus can't be denied, that there is a gap between A) and B). What is obviously debatable though, is the length of the gap.

Dave your main objective is to maintain a false millennial kingdom on this earth that will never take place, going so far as suggesting a gap of time exist between verses 23-24 below

Dave the complete chapter of 1 Corinthians 15 is dedicated to the second coming and resurrection, at this time the (Last Enemy Death) is destroyed (The End)

1 Corinthians 15:21-26KJV
21 For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead.
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive.
23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.

When Jesus Christ returns as seen in verse 23 above, the resurrection takes place, in verse 52 below it gives a "Detailed" description of how long this takes place (In The Twinkling Of An Eye) in verse 54 below in "Detail" it shows the (Last Enemy Death) is destroyed (The End)

Dave how many more times will you post in trying to maintain a millennial kingdom on this earth that will never take place?

When Jesus returns the resurrection takes place in the twinkling of an eye, when the last enemy death is destroyed (The End) its that simple, why do you resist the simple words of God's truth before your eyes?

1 Corinthians 15:51-54KJV
51 Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed,
52 In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed.
53 For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality.
54 So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory.

 

[Ronald Nolette]

1 Corinthians 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

If this is meaning in the end of this present age, and surely it is---afterward they that are Christ's at his coming---when is this meaning in relation to that---Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power?

Before we get started here, surely no one would deny that once verse 24 is fulfilled that it is then meaning what verse 28 records, right?

Let's call this A)---they that are Christ's at his coming.

And let's call this B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28.

Let's start with verse 25 for now---For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.

Is this applicable before B) is fulfilled? Is this still applicable after B) has been fulfilled? If the answer is the former rather than the latter, this alone is already proving that there is a gap between A) and B) if verse 25 is applicable all the way up until when B) is fulfilled, but is no longer applicable once B) is fulfilled.

The question then is, what is the length of the gap? One way to determine that is by comparing with other Scriptures then asking some of these same questions in regards to A) and B).

Some might argue, doesn't Christ reign forever and ever, though? How then can His reign end when B) is fulfilled? This is where context can help us here. He only quits reigning in the sense involving subduing His enemies, and involving judgment, those kind of things. Clearly, once B) is fulfilled He will never be doing those kinds of things ever again, therefore, He no longer needs to reign in that sense, thus explaining why there is a 'till' in 1 Corinthians 15:25 but that it doesn't contradict that He reigns forever and ever.


Will have to start comparing with other Scriptures then asking some of these same questions in regards to A) and B) in posts that follow rather than in the OP here since the OP is getting lengthy as is. Keeping in mind that this is to try and help determine the length of the gap between A) and B), because surely no one can deny that there is a gap between those events. Thus that can't be debatable, thus can't be denied, that there is a gap between A) and B). What is obviously debatable though, is the length of the gap.

The l ength of the gap between Jesus returning and Him subduing all enemies is right about 1,000 years. I say about, because I simply do not know how long it takes to set up the restored earth for the millenial kingdom and how long it takes for God to zap those marching on Jerusalem and the gfrewat white throne set up.

 

[Davidpt]

Where do you get a thousand years in 1 Corinthians 15:20-28?

For one, how about per post #2 for the time being? Unless you have a more reasonable explanation that fits Amil better than Premil, in regards to the timing and length of Matthew 19:28, it seems to me then that that post alone trumps anything and everything you brought up in this post where you feel disproves that there can be a thousand year gap between A) and B).

Post #2 is only the beginning, there's plenty more Scripture to compare with than just that.

The coming of the Lord is shown to be the end of the world. There is no gap of time in-between the coming of Christ, the resurrection and the end. They all belong to the one final climactic overall event.

You would have us believe then, that the very same second Christ returns, the great white throne judgment will have begun and finished entirely, then a second after that the end has arrived? Thus no gap between A) and B). That of course is laughable. Even you couldn't possibly believe that the very same day Christ returns, the great white throne judgment will have begun and finished entirely, the same day He returns. The fact it's impossible to fit that judgment into a 24 hour period or less to begin with, this alone proves there is a gap between A) and B) even if the great white throne judgment begins the same day He returns.

A gap is a gap, regardless whether it's hours, days, or even years, it is still a gap.

 

[WPM]

For one, how about per post #2 for the time being? Unless you have a more reasonable explanation that fits Amil better than Premil, in regards to the timing and length of Matthew 19:28, it seems to me then that that post alone trumps anything and everything you brought up in this post where you feel disproves that there can be a thousand year gap between A) and B).

Post #2 is only the beginning, there's plenty more Scripture to compare with than just that.

Where is your thousand years mentioned in Matthew 19:28? Nowhere! You are continually adding unto Scripture. Your fixation with your supposed future millennium, that enjoys zero corroboration in Scripture, forces you to continually add unto Scripture. This is an unhealthy and an unbiblical fixation. Observe the warning of Scripture!

Deuteronomy 4:2 declares, “Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.”

Proverbs 30:5-6 makes clear, “Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar”

Isaiah 8:20 solemnly warns: “To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them”

Galatians 1:9: “If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.”

You would have us believe then, that the very same second Christ returns, the great white throne judgment will have begun and finished entirely, then a second after that the end has arrived? Thus no gap between A) and B). That of course is laughable. Even you couldn't possibly believe that the very same day Christ returns, the great white throne judgment will have begun and finished entirely, the same day He returns. The fact it's impossible to fit that judgment into a 24 hour period or less to begin with, this alone proves there is a gap between A) and B) even if the great white throne judgment begins the same day He returns.

A gap is a gap, regardless whether it's hours, days, or even years, it is still a gap.

Again, all you have is your opinion, no Scripture to corroborate your fixation with Revelation 20 of a future 1000 years. That is because you have no support elsewhere in Scripture. If you had it you would have quoted it by now, after all these years of avoidance.

 

[Davidpt]

The Amills in this board would be arguing with the author of the letter to the Hebrews if he had to post the following in these boards:

"But of this present time [nŷn] we see not yet all things put under him." Hebrews 2:8

If Jesus were to post the following into these boards, Amils would be arguing with Him for implying that until He returns He will not be reigning in this world:

"My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews:

but of this present time [nŷn] is my kingdom not from hence." John 18:36.

They would be arguing with John for posting:

"And the seventh angel sounded. And there were great voices in Heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world have become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ. And He will reign forever and ever." Revelation 11:15.

Imagine how red the faces of all these Amillennialists are going to be when Jesus, the author of the letter to the Hebrews, and John the apostle tell them that what is written is an accurate record of both what they said and what they meant, and there should never have been any question introduced by their theology about whether or not they meant the opposite of what is written.

Imagine how embarrassed all Amillennialists are going to be when Jesus, shaking His head at their silliness, explains the obvious and logical fact that the Kingdom of Christ within us does not mean Christ has taken His place as King and is reigning as King over all the earth yet.

"Coming together, they asked Him, saying, Lord, do You at this time restore the kingdom to Israel?
And He said to them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father has put in His own authority.

But you shall receive power, the Holy Spirit coming upon you. And you shall be witnesses to Me both in Jerusalem and in all Judea, and in Samaria, and to the end of the earth.

And saying these things, as they watched, He was taken up. And a cloud received Him out of their sight. And while they were looking intently into the heaven, He having gone, even behold, two men in white clothing stood beside them,
11 who also said, Men of Galilee, why do you stand gazing up into the heaven?

This same Jesus who is taken up from you into Heaven, will come in the way you have seen Him going into Heaven."
Acts 1:6-11

"And this gospel of the kingdom shall be proclaimed in all the world as a witness to all nations. And then the end shall come." Matthew 24:14

But you shall receive power, the Holy Spirit coming upon you. And you shall be witnesses to Me both in Jerusalem and in all Judea, and in Samaria, and to the end of the earth.

21 For since death is through man, the resurrection of the dead also is through a Man.
22 For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all will be made alive.
23 But each in his own order: Christ the first-fruit, and afterward they who are Christ's at His coming;
24 then is the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God, even the Father; when He makes to cease all rule and all authority and power.
25 for it is right for Him to reign until He has put all the enemies under His feet.
1 Corinthians 15

"But of this present time [nŷn] we see not yet all things put under him." Hebrews 2:8

26 The last enemy made to cease is death.
27 For He put all things under His feet. But when He says that all things have been put under His feet, it is plain that it excepts Him who has put all things under Him.
28 But when all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subject to Him who has subjected things to Him, so that God may be all things in all.
1 Corinthians 15.

It just beggars belief how all Amillennialists came to, and continue to make the crazy assumption that Christ has already taken His seat as King and judge in this world just because He could have, following His resurrection (since He is King of the Universe and judge of all). They've spiritualized the gospel of the kingdom completely out of its meaning. I'm convinced that gnostic Greek and Roman mindsets are the origins of their false doctrines. It's sad that such a big portion of the church has been made drunk in this delusion.

Apparently, Amils don't think Christ is capable of or even worthy of reigning over this fallen world in person for awhile until it's time for the end to finally arrive. That He can only do that unseen during His ascension, but certainly not in person. Like I pointed out in another thread, Amil cuts out a good portion of the Bible per their view of things, since this leaves a lot of things unfulfilled if there is no era of time some of these things can fit per their view of things.

 

[WPM]

Apparently, Amils don't think Christ is capable of or even worthy of reigning over this fallen world in person for awhile until it's time for the end to finally arrive. That He can only do that unseen during His ascension, but certainly not in person. Like I pointed out in another thread, Amil cuts out a good portion of the Bible per their view of things, since this leaves a lot of things unfulfilled if there is no era of time some of these things can fit per their view of things.

1 Corinthians 15:21-26: “For since by man came death, by man came also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ shall all be made alive. But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming. Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power. For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.”

1 Corinthians 15:51-54: “Behold, I shew you a mystery; We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed, In a moment, in the twinkling of an eye, at the last trump: for the trumpet shall sound, and the dead shall be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed. For this corruptible must put on incorruption, and this mortal must put on immortality. So when this corruptible shall have put on incorruption, and this mortal shall have put on immortality, then shall be brought to pass the saying that is written, Death is swallowed up in victory.”

The whole context of these passages is noticeably focused in on “the resurrection of the dead.” This is the time when corruption is banished from the earth. This is shown in both passages to occur at the “coming” (or parousia) of the Lord, “the last trump,” which is shown to usher in “the end.” This is the closing curtain of time, sin corruption and mortality. We are now into eternity. This witness’s glorification of the redeemed and the punishment of the wicked. It is this climactic event that sees “death” being “swallowed up in victory.” This is shown to be “the last enemy that shall be destroyed.” There is no allowance for some supposed future millennium. That is created by a wrong understand of one symbolic uncorroborated passage in Revelation.

 

[Randy Kluth]

1 Corinthians 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

I'm glad you raised the issue, which I've heard before, because I've never really been able to explain it satisfactorily. It's certainly something I need to look at again and again until I fully understand it. Being able to recognize it in the light of the Bible overall is important if we're to answer your questions.

I am Premill, as you are, and believe that Christ's Coming for his saints precedes the Millennial Kingdom. But it is not a big difference between me and Amills because we both believe that Christ will come and bring his Eternal Kingdom. Nevertheless, I find it important to establish a Millennial Kingdom in a still-mortal world in order to fulfill promises to Abraham that have yet to be fulfilled. God's word appears to be at stake?

So what is Christ's present reign? I've thought that Christ is not reigning yet, and have told others so, but apparently I'm wrong. He of course is still reigning as God in heaven, but is he reigning yet on the earth?

Apparently so, because we are told he must reign until.... So he is already reigning to a limited extent, while gradually conquering his enemies, the last one being death at the resurrection of the Church.

So how is Christ conquering his enemies now? Would the Son of God really require any time at all to defeat his enemies? Apparently so, because he is not just defeating his enemies, but he is also defeating his enemies at the same time he is saving people. So overcoming his enemies requires that he take his time so as to save people from their sinful ways. He plods along, allowing time for people to respond to the Gospel.

I must conclude then that Jesus is reigning both in heaven and on earth, though on earth in only a limited, gradual way. The job of conquering the kingdoms of the world, which he rules over, will be completed only at the 2nd Coming, when his Kingdom comes from heaven to earth. Jesus will come with his glorified saints to establish a legal basis for the reign of his heavenly Kingdom on the earth.

The rest of the passage is very difficult for me. Why would Paul have to say that God is excepted from that which is subdued under Christ? It may be that Paul is saying the Christian Kingdom is simply not self-ruling, but only a matter of the world living under rules that God sets from heaven, rather than any legal system established here upon the earth. It remains unclear to me...

 

[ewq1938]

1Co 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
1Co 15:24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

Clearly there is this business of putting down "all rule and all authority and power" before he delivers up the kingdom to his Father.


1Co 15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.


So, there is a reign after the second coming wherein he puts "down all rule and all authority and power", which is part of putting "all enemies under his feet" and only after that is done is the kingdom delivered up to the Father.


Is there another passage talking about a reign that happens after the second coming? Yes.


Rev 2:25 But that which ye have already hold fast till I come.

That is the second coming. Everything we read of next comes after the second coming:

Rev 2:26 And he that overcometh, and keepeth my works unto the end, to him will I give power over the nations:

After "the end" comes, there is given power over the nations to those that are overcomers. They will be given power over the mortal unsaved nations after Christ has returned not before it.

 

[Randy Kluth]

1Co 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
1Co 15:24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.

Clearly there is this business of putting down "all rule and all authority and power" before he delivers up the kingdom to his Father.


1Co 15:25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.


So, there is a reign after the second coming wherein he puts "down all rule and all authority and power", which is part of putting "all enemies under his feet" and only after that is done is the kingdom delivered up to the Father.


Is there another passage talking about a reign that happens after the second coming? Yes.


Rev 2:25 But that which ye have already hold fast till I come.

That is the second coming. Everything we read of next comes after the second coming:

Rev 2:26 And he that overcometh, and keepeth my works unto the end, to him will I give power over the nations:

After "the end" comes, there is given power over the nations to those that are overcomers. They will be given power over the mortal unsaved nations after Christ has returned not before it.

I agree. The kingdoms of the world are *becoming* the Kingdom of Christ, it says in Rev 11. That means, Christ's rule now is progressive, but not completed until the 2nd Coming. At that time, Jesus will establish his Kingdom on earth, and grant co-rule with him to the Church.

I'm guessing, but it may be that we come back with Jesus to judge all evil spirits, because we have overcome them by our testimony of faith in Christ. We come back to condemn them for what they have done in assaulting us, and for what they have done in assaulting others. The Church is a historic testimony *against Satan,* and in coming back with Jesus we can "judge angels," as Paul seems to suggest in 1 Cor 6.3.

When we establish Christ's Kingdom upon the earth it comes by expelling Satan from the earth to enable Christianity to properly rule on earth without opposition. This implies, to me, that the world is still mortal, and needs to be delivered from Satan. We as glorified saints enable this by our judgment, together with Christ. But the people still have their own sin nature to contend with, apart from Satan's influence.

This is in part why I'm Premill, because Israel still has yet to overcome as a nation and become a Christian nation. But many former Christian nations need to follow suit in this, as I see it.

Again, it's a very speculative subject, and it isn't essential that we agree on all of these points.

 

[Zao is life]

Where do you get a thousand years in 1 Corinthians 15:20-28? It is simply not there. You have to force it into the text. This is one of the most troubling aspects of Premil. It is always adding to the sacred text. This is strictly forbidden in Scripture. 1 Corinthians 15 proves Amil.

Then cometh the end [Gr. telos], when ‘he shall have delivered up’ the kingdom to God, even the Father; when ‘he shall have put down’ all rule and all authority and power. For (or gar or seeing) he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet. The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death. For (or gar or seeing) ‘he hath put’ (aorist active indicative) all things under his feet. But when he saith, all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. And when all things shall be subdued unto him (speaking of the second coming), then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all” (1 Corinthians 15:25-28).

The Greek simply reads:

Christos – Christ
en – at
autos – His
parousia – coming
eita – then
telos – the end

The coming of the Lord is shown to be the end of the world. There is no gap of time in-between the coming of Christ, the resurrection and the end. They all belong to the one final climactic overall event.

Once again you have changed the meaning of the word eita in your own mind to suit your own mind's false gospel of the Kingdom of Christ.

1 Timothy 3:10
And let these also first (prōton) be proved; then (eîta) let them use the office of a deacon, being found blameless.

There's a period of time appointed between the proton and the eita in the above verse.

Mark 4:17
And have no root in themselves, and so endure but for a time: afterward (eîta), when affliction or persecution ariseth for the word’s sake, immediately they are offended."

There's a period of time between the proton and the eita in the above verse.

Mark 4:28
For the earth bringeth forth fruit of herself; first (prōton) the blade, then (eîta) the ear, after that (eîta) the full corn in the ear."

There's a period of time between the proton and the first eita, and between the first eita and the second eita in the above verse.

1 Timothy 2:13
For Adam was first formed, then (eîta) Eve.

There was a period of time between the proton and the eita in the above verse.

1 Corinthians 15:22-26
For as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all will be made alive. But each in his own order: Christ the first-fruit (aparchḗ), and afterward (épeita) they who are Christ's at His coming; then (eîta) is the end, when He delivers the kingdom to God, even the Father; when He makes to cease all rule and all authority and power. for it is right for Him to reign until He has put all the enemies under His feet. The last enemy made to cease is death.

Not only is there a period of time between implied between the first-fruit (aparchḗ) and the afterward (épeita), as well as between the afterward (épeita) and the eita (then) in 1 Corinthians 15:24 (just as there is a period of time implied in the verses above it which use the same word),

but there is a period of time not merely implied, but actually declared in Revelation 20 between the afterward (épeita) and the eita (then) in 1 Corinthians 15:24.

Namely, a thousand years between the coming of Christ and the destruction of death.

"But of this present time [nŷn] we see not yet all things put under him." Hebrews 2:8

If Jesus were to post the following into these boards, Amils would be arguing with Him for implying that until He returns He will not be reigning in this world:

"My kingdom is not of this world: if my kingdom were of this world, then would my servants fight, that I should not be delivered to the Jews:

but of this present time [nŷn] is my kingdom not from hence." John 18:36.

"And the seventh angel sounded. And there were great voices in Heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world have become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ. And He will reign forever and ever." Revelation 11:15.

But you continue to choose to brush many scriptures and facts aside in your failed attempts to prove your false doctrine regarding the Kingdom of Christ which now exists in the world, and the coming Kingdom of Christ.

Thus you deny scripture and corrupt the gospel of the Kingdom in your zeal.

 

[Hobie]

1 Corinthians 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

If this is meaning in the end of this present age, and surely it is---afterward they that are Christ's at his coming---when is this meaning in relation to that---Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power?

Before we get started here, surely no one would deny that once verse 24 is fulfilled that it is then meaning what verse 28 records, right?

Let's call this A)---they that are Christ's at his coming.

And let's call this B)---1 Corinthians 15:24 and 1 Corinthians 15:28.

Let's start with verse 25 for now---For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.

Is this applicable before B) is fulfilled? Is this still applicable after B) has been fulfilled? If the answer is the former rather than the latter, this alone is already proving that there is a gap between A) and B) if verse 25 is applicable all the way up until when B) is fulfilled, but is no longer applicable once B) is fulfilled.

The question then is, what is the length of the gap? One way to determine that is by comparing with other Scriptures then asking some of these same questions in regards to A) and B).

Some might argue, doesn't Christ reign forever and ever, though? How then can His reign end when B) is fulfilled? This is where context can help us here. He only quits reigning in the sense involving subduing His enemies, and involving judgment, those kind of things. Clearly, once B) is fulfilled He will never be doing those kinds of things ever again, therefore, He no longer needs to reign in that sense, thus explaining why there is a 'till' in 1 Corinthians 15:25 but that it doesn't contradict that He reigns forever and ever.


Will have to start comparing with other Scriptures then asking some of these same questions in regards to A) and B) in posts that follow rather than in the OP here since the OP is getting lengthy as is. Keeping in mind that this is to try and help determine the length of the gap between A) and B), because surely no one can deny that there is a gap between those events. Thus that can't be debatable, thus can't be denied, that there is a gap between A) and B). What is obviously debatable though, is the length of the gap.

Well the main issue is that no one knows the time of Christ Second Coming, but once it happens then He takes the saints to heaven and they lived and reign there 'with Christ a thousand years', after which the New Jerusalem comes down as we see in Revelation 21:2, and the wicked meet their end.
Revelation 21:2
And I John saw the holy city, new Jerusalem, coming down from God out of heaven, prepared as a bride adorned for her husband.

The clue here is the 'last enemy that shall be destroyed is death' which happens when the New Jerusalem comes down out of heaven and the wicked are destroyed and we see it in Revelation 21:4...
Revelation 21:4
And God shall wipe away all tears from their eyes; and there shall be no more death, neither sorrow, nor crying, neither shall there be any more pain: for the former things are passed away.

The coming down of the New Jerusalem is the clue of when the wicked meet their end as Revelation 20:9 tells us that after the 1000 years when they 'compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them.'

At this point you will see the implementation of 'when all things shall be subdued unto him', as we see in the next part and the description..
Revelation 21:5
5 And he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he said unto me, Write: for these words are true and faithful.6 6 And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely.

We see now the angels description of the kingdom in the New Jerusalem that has come down out of heaven..
Revelation 21:9-22
9 And there came unto me one of the seven angels which had the seven vials full of the seven last plagues, and talked with me, saying, Come hither, I will shew thee the bride, the Lamb's wife.
10 And he carried me away in the spirit to a great and high mountain, and shewed me that great city, the holy Jerusalem, descending out of heaven from God,
11 Having the glory of God: and her light was like unto a stone most precious, even like a jasper stone, clear as crystal;
12 And had a wall great and high, and had twelve gates, and at the gates twelve angels, and names written thereon, which are the names of the twelve tribes of the children of Israel:
13 On the east three gates; on the north three gates; on the south three gates; and on the west three gates.
14 And the wall of the city had twelve foundations, and in them the names of the twelve apostles of the Lamb.
15 And he that talked with me had a golden reed to measure the city, and the gates thereof, and the wall thereof.
16 And the city lieth foursquare, and the length is as large as the breadth: and he measured the city with the reed, twelve thousand furlongs. The length and the breadth and the height of it are equal.
17 And he measured the wall thereof, an hundred and forty and four cubits, according to the measure of a man, that is, of the angel.
18 And the building of the wall of it was of jasper: and the city was pure gold, like unto clear glass.
19 And the foundations of the wall of the city were garnished with all manner of precious stones. The first foundation was jasper; the second, sapphire; the third, a chalcedony; the fourth, an emerald;
20 The fifth, sardonyx; the sixth, sardius; the seventh, chrysolyte; the eighth, beryl; the ninth, a topaz; the tenth, a chrysoprasus; the eleventh, a jacinth; the twelfth, an amethyst.
21 And the twelve gates were twelve pearls: every several gate was of one pearl: and the street of the city was pure gold, as it were transparent glass.
22 And I saw no temple therein: for the Lord God Almighty and the Lamb are the temple of it.

And the saints ' they which are written in the Lamb's book of life', who will live there for eternity...
Revelation 21:24-27
24 And the nations of them which are saved shall walk in the light of it: and the kings of the earth do bring their glory and honour into it.
25 And the gates of it shall not be shut at all by day: for there shall be no night there.
26 And they shall bring the glory and honour of the nations into it.
27 And there shall in no wise enter into it any thing that defileth, neither whatsoever worketh abomination, or maketh a lie: but they which are written in the Lamb's book of life.

 

[Davidpt]

Where is your thousand years mentioned in Matthew 19:28? Nowhere! You are continually adding unto Scripture. Your fixation with your supposed future millennium, that enjoys zero corroboration in Scripture, forces you to continually add unto Scripture. This is an unhealthy and an unbiblical fixation. Observe the warning of Scripture!

Deuteronomy 4:2 declares, “Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the LORD your God which I command you.”

Proverbs 30:5-6 makes clear, “Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar”

Isaiah 8:20 solemnly warns: “To the law and to the testimony: if they speak not according to this word, it is because there is no light in them”

Galatians 1:9: “If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed.”



Again, all you have is your opinion, no Scripture to corroborate your fixation with Revelation 20 of a future 1000 years. That is because you have no support elsewhere in Scripture. If you had it you would have quoted it by now, after all these years of avoidance.

Why don't you take us through post #2 and show the alleged proper way to understand that verse rather than just voicing your opinion here? Debunk what I submitted. I don't care. If it can be debunked I obviously want it debunked. One can't debunk it with mere opinions alone by avoiding that post, though.

Simply show where Matthew 19:28 initially begins in time and where it ends in time and how it is a better fit for Amil than it is for Premil. You can't do any of that by avoiding what I submitted in post #2. To debunk something sort of goes like such. One person submits something. Another person then goes through what that person submitted and shows why what that person has concluded is incorrect and then shows the correct way to understand it instead. I left plenty of doors open in that post. For example, I said this---Unless someone can convincingly argue why it would be reasonable to take that to still be taking place after B) is fulfilled, thus for forever, the latter is obviously the only reasonable conclusion to arrive at, that Matthew 19:28 is only meaning during the gap between A) and B).

And I also said this--- If the former, one then needs to explain how that is perfectly reasonable that Matthew 19:28 only involves a single 24 hour day or less?

 

[Eternally Grateful]

1 Corinthians 15:23 But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming.
24 Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power.
25 For he must reign, till he hath put all enemies under his feet.
26 The last enemy that shall be destroyed is death.
27 For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him.
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all.

If this is meaning in the end of this present age, and surely it is---afterward they that are Christ's at his coming---when is this meaning in relation to that---Then cometh the end, when he shall have delivered up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have put down all rule and all authority and power?

Here is your first mistake.

It is not the end of this age.

it is the end of creation as we know it. When everyone is resurrected and death has been totally defeated (there will be no more death, And it is also AFTER he reigns on earth, which he will do AFTER this present age

 

[Davidpt]

The rest of the passage is very difficult for me. Why would Paul have to say that God is excepted from that which is subdued under Christ? It may be that Paul is saying the Christian Kingdom is simply not self-ruling, but only a matter of the world living under rules that God sets from heaven, rather than any legal system established here upon the earth. It remains unclear to me...

Have you looked at different translations? Some translations tend to make things a bit clearer than other translations do. Though, I prefer the KJV myself, for example, there are times when other translations of a particular passage in question seem to make it clearer as to what is being meant over all.