justbyfaith
Well-Known Member
C'mon JBF, the passage is clearly indicating two different entities. Not to mention, one is called God, the other Lord (i can't believe that you even used this verse).
The word "and" in this verse can be translated "even" so that it reads like this:
1Co 8:6, But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; even one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him.
For it is clear that there is one Lord (cf. scripture above; and Ephesians 4:5); and that this Lord is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). Afraid to look these scriptures up?
No one will ever call Jesus God in such a matter-of-fact, or unqualified means.
Thomas did in fact call Him his Lord and his God in no unqualified terms.
I do not need to quote the scripture on this; no doubt as a Jehovah's Witness you have been confronted with it many times.
I see you are speaking for yourself. I've been born again, so I'll believe and live the Word of God. 1 John 3:9
I was testing to see if you still had me on Ignore.
Yes, 1 John 3:9 teaches us that as those who are born of God, we "doth not" and "cannot" sin. This does not contradict 1 John 1:8.
For 1 John 1:8 teaches us that we have indwelling sin. The sin in question does not have to be alive, so that it has any say over our behaviour. It can be rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8).
I have said this many times; and I am surprised at how dull of hearing people are at the truth of this matter.