Irrefutable proof that Jesus is God.

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justbyfaith

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When it comes to Acts 4:10-12 I recognize that Peter said that God raised Jesus from the dead. You can argue all you want but that shows that Jesus and The True God are not the same.

Who raised Jesus from the dead? In Romans 10:9 it is clear that it was God.

However, in John 10:17-18 it is written that Jesus laid down His life in order that He might take it again (unless Jesus was lying).

Also in John 2:19-21 Jesus said that He would raise up the temple of His body...another statement telling us that Jesus claimed He would raise Himself from the dead.

This indicates that Jesus rose Himself from the dead.

Another reason why we can safely believe that Jesus is God.
 
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justbyfaith

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Now, when it comes to Acts of the Apostles 4:10-12 it is clear that there is only one name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved...and that name is "the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth"

So calling on the name "Jehovah" will not save you.

What does that do to the NWT rendition of Romans 10:13?

Talk to me. What do you think this means?

Is that verse not derived from Joel 2:32 (kjv)?

Joe 2:32, And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.

I think it means that the only way to call on the name of YHWH is to call on the name "Jesus Christ of Nazareth" for salvation.

To @BARNEY BRIGHT.
 
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justbyfaith

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Also, is not Jehovah the Lord (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21)?

And therefore is it not accurate to call Him the LORD?
 

justbyfaith

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There is one Lord in holy scripture (Ephesians 4:5, Mark 12:29); and that Lord is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). Yet no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3), even the Spirit of truth.

And Jesus is the Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

Therefore, if Jesus and the Father are separate Lords, is that not two Lords? But that contradicts the scriptural contention that there is only one Lord (Ephesians 4:5, Mark 12:29, 1 Corinthians 8:6).

If there is truly only one Lord, and both Jesus and the Father are said to be the Lord, then they are the same Lord.

Thus, Jesus is the Father; even God.
 

janc3

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Actually no it's not methaphorical but because you think it is shows that you really don't know much about JW.
According to the Watchtower Jesus is a created being, but the difference is that Jesus was created "personally" by God, all others were created by God through Jesus.
Jesus is therefore created as everything else, but created is not begotten. These are two different terms.
 

justbyfaith

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According to the Watchtower Jesus is a created being, but the difference is that Jesus was created "personally" by God, all others were created by God through Jesus.
Jesus is therefore created as everything else, but created is not begotten. These are two different terms.
When Jesus was "made", He was made as a descendant of David (Romans 1:3).

Jehovah has a Maker (Isaiah 45:11).
 

101G

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Well when Jesus says that he has a Father and God in Scripture that's what I'm going to believe.
GINOLJC, to all
first thanks for the reply, second, there is no "well" nothing, "Father" is a title. if you're a soldier, or a serviceman, or servicewoman, in the military, you have a UNCLE name "SAM", as in uncle Sam. when will you get it through your head that "Father" here, is not biological, but the title or the term Father simply means "SOURCE" or the the "First" in order of time and place. notice Genesis 4:20 "And Adah bare Jabal: he was the father of such as dwell in tents, and of such as have cattle." he was a father, in the sense that he was just the "FIRST" to dwell in Tents. are you getting this? my God how hard is it to understand.

now listen, John 20:17 "Jesus saith unto her, Touch me not; for I am not yet ascended to my Father: but go to my brethren, and say unto them, I ascend unto my Father, and your Father; and to my God, and your God."

question, is God Mary Magdalene Father in a biological sense? but did not as you say, "JESUS said", well JESUS say, God was her Father also, but is not Jesus the "only" begotten of God...... (smile), see how ignorant your thinking is. but as you say, "Jesus said", well Jesus said Gopd was here Father too, care to explane that? ... never mind.

now is not the "Lord", notice how Lord is spelled, is not the "Lord" the Father? 2 Corinthians 6:17 "Wherefore come out from among them, and be ye separate, saith the Lord, and touch not the unclean thing; and I will receive you,"
2 Corinthians 6:18 "And will be a Father unto you, and ye shall be my sons and daughters, saith the Lord Almighty." WHO IS THE "Lord" ALMIGHTY Barney? lets see, John 13:13 "Ye call me Master and Lord: and ye say well; for so I am." now barney you have a problem, for if the LORD who is GOD is the Father, and the Lord who is God is the Father and you say they are not the same person, well you just violated scripture, for the bible clearly states, there is only one "Father". John 8:41 "Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God." now this, 1 Corinthians 8:6 "But to us there is but one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we by him." who made all things.... see John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24.... (smile). see THOMAS got it right my "Lord" (who is God), the diversified "spirit, that was in Flesh, G2758 κενόω kenoo. and My (God) the Spirit in that Flesh now enpowered by the Spirit that is his from the beginning, John 17:5 "And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was." what was JESUS befeore the world was? answer, Spirit, supportive scripture, 1 Peter 1:11 "Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow." WHO? the Spirit... let that sink in... the "Spirit"... and HOW MANY "Spirit" IS THERE? ONLY ONE. BINGO

when Jesus say MY FATHER, which art in heaven, he's saying "MY Spirit" which is in heaven. that's him, JESUS, the Spirit, the Holy Spirit, diversified in heaven abd on earth. :eek: say what? my God how slow can one be to learn. you say you read your bible FINE, "BUT ARE YOU UNDERSTANDING IT?"

one more and I'm going to leave this alone. Revelation 3:12 "Him that overcometh will I make a pillar in the temple of my God, and he shall go no more out: and I will write upon him the name of my God, and the name of the city of my God, which is new Jerusalem, which cometh down out of heaven from my God: and I will write upon him my new name."

see you can read something, but yet not understand it. listem "my" here is ME. while in the diverse state MY GOD is his "Spirit". supportive scripture, Isaiah 63:5 "And I looked, and there was none to help; and I wondered that there was none to uphold: therefore mine own arm brought salvation unto me; and my fury, it upheld me."

"MINE" as a Pronoun, used to refer to a thing or things belonging to or associated with the speaker. MY GOD is MY "Spirit", for God is a "Spirit". are the light blubs coming on now?

MY God is me, the diversified "Spirit" that is me in heaven while I'm on earth also at the same time, John 3:13 "And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven."

I keep saying this, while on earth in flesh "diverse", or shared in flesh, Jesus is on earth talking to Nicodemus, at the same exact time in heaven running or upholding the universe. THIS IS PLAIN AS DAY.

well you keep on using that old lame worn out excuse, "Jesus said", but do you "UNDERSTAND" what Jesus said? that's the problem.

as the proverb clearly states, Proverbs 4:7 "Wisdom is the principal thing; therefore get wisdom: and with all thy getting get understanding."

NOW, you say you believe what Jesus say, ok, John 8:58 "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am."

now Jesus said that, but do you UNDERSTAND what Jesus said...... :p I hope God... no "MY" God open your closed eyes... we suggest you re-read this post for ....... WISDOM and UNDERSTANDING.

Good Day.

PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"
 
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BARNEY BRIGHT

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I am actually agreeing with you that in Revelation 22:13, "Alpha and Omega" refers to Jehovah.

Read post #496 (Irrefutable proof that Jesus is God.) again.

There is only one Person who is the First and the Last.[/QUOTE

There is more than one person who the words, "the first and the last" are applied to. They are applied to Jehovah God at Revelation Revelation 1:8; and 22:13 and they mean that he is the Only True God none before him none after him. However the words, "the first and the last also are applied to the Only Begotten Son of God Jesus Christ at Revelation 1:17-18.

In Isaiah 44:6, Jehovah rightly describes his own position as the one and only almighty God, saying: “I am the first and I am the last, and besides me there is no God.” When Jesus presents himself by the title “the First and the Last,” he is not claiming equality with Jehovah, the Grand Creator. He is using a title properly bestowed on him by God. In Isaiah, Jehovah was making a statement about His unique position as the true God. He is God eternal, and besides him there is indeed no God. (1 Timothy 1:17) In Revelation, Jesus is talking about his bestowed title, calling attention to his unique resurrection.

Jesus was indeed “the First” human to be resurrected to immortal spirit life. (Colossians 1:18) Moreover, he is “the Last” to be so resurrected by Jehovah personally. Thus, he becomes “the living one . . . living forever and ever.” He enjoys immortality. In this, he is like his immortal Father, who is called “the living God.” (Revelation 7:2; Psalm 42:2) For all others of humanity, Jesus himself is “the resurrection and the life.” (John 11:25) So Jesus is the first to be resurrected by The Only True God and the last to be resurrected by the Only True God, everyone else will be resurrected by Only Begotten Son of Jehovah God.
 

101G

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Looking at a few of these last post, I really can't believe what I hearing from Christians. there is only one God and maker of all things. Who hold the titles of both Father & Son. scripture, Malachi 2:10 "Have we not all one father? hath not one God created us? why do we deal treacherously every man against his brother, by profaning the covenant of our fathers?"

now the question, "WHO IS THE CREATOR?". let the bible speak. starting with the OT and finishing up in the NT. so that the scriptures harmonize.

Speaking of the CREATOR, "Who is going to make the NEW HEAVEN and the NEW EARTH? JESUS, let the bible speak.
Isaiah 66:22 "For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, shall remain before me, saith the LORD, so shall your seed and your name remain." (here only ONE person is going to make the NEW HEAVEN and the NEW EARTH. here it is clearly identified as the "LORD", all caps. now this,

2 Peter 3:13 "Nevertheless we, according to his promise, look for new heavens and a new earth, wherein dwelleth righteousness." (we just heard that promise in the scripture above, Isaiah 66:22). now lets see who this CREATOR IS, again, let the bible speak,

Revelation 21:5 "And he that sat upon the throne said, Behold, I make all things new. And he said unto me, Write: for these words are true and faithful."
Revelation 21:6 "And he said unto me, It is done. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end. I will give unto him that is athirst of the fountain of the water of life freely." (now, the one who is going to make all things NEW is the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, correct, now let's see who is the Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end is,

Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty." (BINGO, it's the Lord... wait... HOLD IT, was it not the LORD.. all caps in Isaiah 66:22 who said that "he", was gfoing to make the NEW HEAVEN and the NEW EARTH, "For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, shall remain before me, saith the LORD, so shall your seed and your name remain". well now, either one has two CREATORS, which the bible do not say, or it's the same one person in Isaiah 66:22, and Revelation 21:5 & 6. "I" is one PERSON, and one person only. lets make sure,

Revelation 1:4 "John to the seven churches which are in Asia: Grace be unto you, and peace, from him which is, and which was, and which is to come; and from the seven Spirits which are before his throne;" (many say the "which is, and which was, and which is to come", is the Father... LORD, well hold your horses, Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty." WELL NO, him, "which is, and which was, and which is to come", is the Lord Jesus according to Revelation 1:8 "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty."
and JESUS Christ is the Son,
Revelation 1:5 "And from Jesus Christ, who is the faithful witness, and the first begotten of the dead, and the prince of the kings of the earth. Unto him that loved us, and washed us from our sins in his own blood,"

well, well, well, the LORD, the Father, is the Son, the Lord , who is "HIM, which is, and which was, and which is to come.

so all this nonsense about someone is created or someone is created by someone else, that all false doctrine. READ YOUR BIBLES.

again it is shown that JESUS is the Father and the Son, .... DIVERSIFIED in FLESH, ONE PERSON. :eek:

Another successful sabotage operation.

PICJAG
101G The "Spiritual Saboteur"
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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Who raised Jesus from the dead? In Romans 10:9 it is clear that it was God.

However, in John 10:17-18 it is written that Jesus laid down His life in order that He might take it again (unless Jesus was lying).

Also in John 2:19-21 Jesus said that He would raise up the temple of His body...another statement telling us that Jesus claimed He would raise Himself from the dead.

This indicates that Jesus rose Himself from the dead.

Another reason why we can safely believe that Jesus is God.

Myself I harmonize Jesus’ words with many other scriptures, which clearly show that God and Christ are separate persons and not equal and not tied together, along with the holy spirit, to form one god. Numerous texts show that Jesus did not raise himself from the dead, but that he was resurrected by Jehovah God his Father. (Rom. 8:11; 1 Cor. 15:15; Eph. 1:20) So how do I view John 2:19?

The context must be examined. Joh 2 Verses 13 to 18 show that Jesus had cleansed the literal temple at Jerusalem, routing from it those who were making it a place of merchandise, and as a result had been confronted with this question from the Jews: “What sign have you to show us, since you are doing these things?” Then in the 19th Joh 2 verse 19 Jesus told them the sign, which is the basis of what we're talking about. Joh 2 Verses 20-22 continue: “Therefore the Jews said: ‘This temple was built in forty-six years, and will you raise it up in three days?’ But he was talking about the temple of his body. When, though, he was raised up from the dead, his disciples called to mind that he used to say this.”—NW.

This setting shows that Jesus was not talking about his physical body, but “he was talking about the temple of his body”. The temple in Jerusalem that Jesus cleansed represented not Jesus alone but also the body-members over which he is head. Just as the literal temple was not made up of one stone but many, so “the temple of his body” consists of many living stones, with Jesus as the foundation cornerstone: “You yourselves also as living stones are being built up a spiritual house for the purpose of a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ.” (1 Pet. 2:4-7, NW) After the Jewish religionists rejected Christ the living stone and broke him down by death on the torture stake, on the third day thereafter Jehovah God raised him up to become the chief cornerstone of the temple of living stones then under preparation. He immediately appeared to his disciples and lifted them up out of their despondency, built them up spiritually so that they could “offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God”. That this building of “the temple of his body” started then and continued through the years that followed is shown by Peter’s use of the present tense when years afterward he said Christ’s followers “are being built up a spiritual house”.

Now with this broadened view of matters lets return to the consideration of Jesus’ words, “In three days I will raise it up.” We have seen how he did start giving attention to the building up of the temple of living stones after his resurrection on the third day of his death. Yet it might be argued with some force that since Jesus was to be the chief cornerstone and he was the firstfruits of the resurrection, the first one to be built up for use in the construction of the spiritual house or temple, we cannot eliminate him entirely from this building work and apply the expressions concerning it to his followers only. Yet we cannot say that Jesus raised himself, for he was dead, and the trinity doctrine, being proved false by so many scriptures, cannot be appealed to as a basis for saying he was dead only as Christ but alive as God, and hence could, as God, raise himself, as Christ. Moreover, as we have previously noted, Joh 2 verse 22 specifically states that “he was raised up from the dead”, not that he raised himself. Is there any way, then, that we could understand and harmonize in a reasonable way Jesus’ statement that “in three days I will raise it up”, having it embrace his own resurrection as chief cornerstone as well as the building up of his followers as living stones?

There does seem to be such a reasonable explanation. When Jesus said, “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up,” he was speaking in a predictive sense; not that he would raise himself up, but that he predicted that three days after he was broken in death by his enemies the temple of God would begin to be raised up, beginning with him as the head member of it. We have examples of this predictive use of a term elsewhere in the Bible, where an individual says he will do a thing, but he actually does not do it at all. It comes about only as a result of his action.

For instance, at Isaiah 6:9, 10, where Jehovah appears to Isaiah and says, “Go, and tell this people.” And then what does he say? He says: “Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed.” Now, God did not mean for Isaiah to actually go and fatten their hearts and stop up their ears and close their eyes to forestall any repentance; but he was predicting that that would be the effect of the message that Isaiah had been commanded to go tell the people, that the people themselves would show closed eyes and unhearing ears and fatty hearts, that they would not repent and turn to Jehovah for healing spiritually.

A similar usage is found at Ezekiel 43:3, where Ezekiel sees the vision of Jehovah coming to the temple, and says it was “according to the vision that I saw when I came to destroy the city”. But Ezekiel did not come to destroy Jerusalem; he came only to predict the destruction of the city by the Babylonians. Yet he spoke of himself as doing it, you see. So in the same predictive sense Jesus could speak as though he was going to raise himself, yet actually he would be resurrected by Jehovah God.

Then we also have that controversial text where it says Jehovah hardened the heart of Pharaoh. He said: “I will harden Pharaoh’s heart, and multiply my signs and my wonders in the land of Egypt. But Pharaoh shall not hearken unto you.” (Ex. 7:3, 4) Now, Jehovah did not harden the heart of Pharaoh, but he was predicting that Pharaoh’s heart would be hardened as a result of the message sent to him by Moses and Aaron, and that the repeated extension of God’s mercy to him would not soften him but would cause his heart to harden even more. It is not unusual for wicked men to interpret Jehovah’s long-suffering as a sign of weakness and thus become more set in their evil ways, thinking the time of reckoning will never come. This is shown by Ecclesiastes 8:11: “Because sentence against an evil work is not executed speedily, therefore the heart of the sons of men is fully set in them to do evil.

There are a number of other Scriptural examples where one person is spoken of as doing a thing, not because he actually does it, but because he predicts it or it results from some action of his. So it is at John 2:19. Jesus’ words, “In three days I will raise it up,” were merely predicting that the temple would be raised up on the third day after his death on the torture stake, and Jehovah God was the one who raised up the temple by first raising up the head member of it, the Lord Jesus Christ, and from then on, from that third day on, God used him to raise up all the other members of the temple class. (Zech. 6:12) So through the Roman military the Jews broke down the chief and initial member of God’s spiritual temple, but on the third day Jehovah raised him as a spirit creature and chief cornerstone of the spiritual temple.
 

justbyfaith

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Now, when it comes to Acts of the Apostles 4:10-12 it is clear that there is only one name under heaven given among men by which we must be saved...and that name is "the name of Jesus Christ of Nazareth"

So calling on the name "Jehovah" will not save you.

What does that do to the NWT rendition of Romans 10:13?

Talk to me. What do you think this means?

Is that verse not derived from Joel 2:32 (kjv)?

Joe 2:32, And it shall come to pass, that whosoever shall call on the name of the LORD shall be delivered: for in mount Zion and in Jerusalem shall be deliverance, as the LORD hath said, and in the remnant whom the LORD shall call.

I think it means that the only way to call on the name of YHWH is to call on the name "Jesus Christ of Nazareth" for salvation.

To @BARNEY BRIGHT.
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There is one Lord in holy scripture (Ephesians 4:5, Mark 12:29); and that Lord is the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21). Yet no one can say that Jesus is the Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3), even the Spirit of truth.

And Jesus is the Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6).

Therefore, if Jesus and the Father are separate Lords, is that not two Lords? But that contradicts the scriptural contention that there is only one Lord (Ephesians 4:5, Mark 12:29, 1 Corinthians 8:6).

If there is truly only one Lord, and both Jesus and the Father are said to be the Lord, then they are the same Lord.

Thus, Jesus is the Father; even God.
 
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justbyfaith

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Myself I harmonize Jesus’ words with many other scriptures, which clearly show that God and Christ are separate persons and not equal and not tied together, along with the holy spirit, to form one god. Numerous texts show that Jesus did not raise himself from the dead, but that he was resurrected by Jehovah God his Father. (Rom. 8:11; 1 Cor. 15:15; Eph. 1:20) So how do I view John 2:19?

The context must be examined. Joh 2 Verses 13 to 18 show that Jesus had cleansed the literal temple at Jerusalem, routing from it those who were making it a place of merchandise, and as a result had been confronted with this question from the Jews: “What sign have you to show us, since you are doing these things?” Then in the 19th Joh 2 verse 19 Jesus told them the sign, which is the basis of what we're talking about. Joh 2 Verses 20-22 continue: “Therefore the Jews said: ‘This temple was built in forty-six years, and will you raise it up in three days?’ But he was talking about the temple of his body. When, though, he was raised up from the dead, his disciples called to mind that he used to say this.”—NW.

This setting shows that Jesus was not talking about his physical body, but “he was talking about the temple of his body”. The temple in Jerusalem that Jesus cleansed represented not Jesus alone but also the body-members over which he is head. Just as the literal temple was not made up of one stone but many, so “the temple of his body” consists of many living stones, with Jesus as the foundation cornerstone: “You yourselves also as living stones are being built up a spiritual house for the purpose of a holy priesthood, to offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God through Jesus Christ.” (1 Pet. 2:4-7, NW) After the Jewish religionists rejected Christ the living stone and broke him down by death on the torture stake, on the third day thereafter Jehovah God raised him up to become the chief cornerstone of the temple of living stones then under preparation. He immediately appeared to his disciples and lifted them up out of their despondency, built them up spiritually so that they could “offer up spiritual sacrifices acceptable to God”. That this building of “the temple of his body” started then and continued through the years that followed is shown by Peter’s use of the present tense when years afterward he said Christ’s followers “are being built up a spiritual house”.

Now with this broadened view of matters lets return to the consideration of Jesus’ words, “In three days I will raise it up.” We have seen how he did start giving attention to the building up of the temple of living stones after his resurrection on the third day of his death. Yet it might be argued with some force that since Jesus was to be the chief cornerstone and he was the firstfruits of the resurrection, the first one to be built up for use in the construction of the spiritual house or temple, we cannot eliminate him entirely from this building work and apply the expressions concerning it to his followers only. Yet we cannot say that Jesus raised himself, for he was dead, and the trinity doctrine, being proved false by so many scriptures, cannot be appealed to as a basis for saying he was dead only as Christ but alive as God, and hence could, as God, raise himself, as Christ. Moreover, as we have previously noted, Joh 2 verse 22 specifically states that “he was raised up from the dead”, not that he raised himself. Is there any way, then, that we could understand and harmonize in a reasonable way Jesus’ statement that “in three days I will raise it up”, having it embrace his own resurrection as chief cornerstone as well as the building up of his followers as living stones?

There does seem to be such a reasonable explanation. When Jesus said, “Break down this temple, and in three days I will raise it up,” he was speaking in a predictive sense; not that he would raise himself up, but that he predicted that three days after he was broken in death by his enemies the temple of God would begin to be raised up, beginning with him as the head member of it. We have examples of this predictive use of a term elsewhere in the Bible, where an individual says he will do a thing, but he actually does not do it at all. It comes about only as a result of his action.

For instance, at Isaiah 6:9, 10, where Jehovah appears to Isaiah and says, “Go, and tell this people.” And then what does he say? He says: “Make the heart of this people fat, and make their ears heavy, and shut their eyes; lest they see with their eyes, and hear with their ears, and understand with their heart, and convert, and be healed.” Now, God did not mean for Isaiah to actually go and fatten their hearts and stop up their ears and close their eyes to forestall any repentance; but he was predicting that that would be the effect of the message that Isaiah had been commanded to go tell the people, that the people themselves would show closed eyes and unhearing ears and fatty hearts, that they would not repent and turn to Jehovah for healing spiritually.

A similar usage is found at Ezekiel 43:3, where Ezekiel sees the vision of Jehovah coming to the temple, and says it was “according to the vision that I saw when I came to destroy the city”. But Ezekiel did not come to destroy Jerusalem; he came only to predict the destruction of the city by the Babylonians. Yet he spoke of himself as doing it, you see. So in the same predictive sense Jesus could speak as though he was going to raise himself, yet actually he would be resurrected by Jehovah God.

Then we also have that controversial text where it says Jehovah hardened the heart of Pharaoh. He said: “I will harden Pharaoh’s heart, and multiply my signs and my wonders in the land of Egypt. But Pharaoh shall not hearken unto you.” (Ex. 7:3, 4) Now, Jehovah did not harden the heart of Pharaoh, but he was predicting that Pharaoh’s heart would be hardened as a result of the message sent to him by Moses and Aaron, and that the repeated extension of God’s mercy to him would not soften him but would cause his heart to harden even more. It is not unusual for wicked men to interpret Jehovah’s long-suffering as a sign of weakness and thus become more set in their evil ways, thinking the time of reckoning will never come. This is shown by Ecclesiastes 8:11: “Because sentence against an evil work is not executed speedily, therefore the heart of the sons of men is fully set in them to do evil.
All of these are mere arguments as to why the scriptures do not really mean what they say.

I will pray that these arguments might be demolished as strongholds within your thinking.

2Co 10:3, For though we walk in the flesh, we do not war after the flesh:
2Co 10:4, (For the weapons of our warfare are not carnal, but mighty through God to the pulling down of strong holds;)
2Co 10:5, Casting down imaginations, and every high thing that exalteth itself against the knowledge of God, and bringing into captivity every thought to the obedience of Christ;

For prayer is the heavy artillery of the full armor of God:

Eph 6:13, Wherefore take unto you the whole armour of God, that ye may be able to withstand in the evil day, and having done all, to stand.
Eph 6:14, Stand therefore, having your loins girt about with truth, and having on the breastplate of righteousness;
Eph 6:15, And your feet shod with the preparation of the gospel of peace;
Eph 6:16, Above all, taking the shield of faith, wherewith ye shall be able to quench all the fiery darts of the wicked.
Eph 6:17, And take the helmet of salvation, and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God:
Eph 6:18, Praying always with all prayer and supplication in the Spirit, and watching thereunto with all perseverance and supplication for all saints;
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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According to the Watchtower Jesus is a created being, but the difference is that Jesus was created "personally" by God, all others were created by God through Jesus.
Jesus is therefore created as everything else, but created is not begotten. These are two different terms.

Some commentators object to the translation of the Greek word mo·no·ge·nesʹ by the English “only-begotten.” They point out that the latter portion of the word (ge·nesʹ) does not come from gen·naʹo (beget) but from geʹnos (kind), hence the term refers to ‘the only one of a class or kind.’ Thus many translations speak of Jesus as the “only Son” (RS; AT; JB) rather than the “only-begotten son” of God. (Joh 1:14; 3:16, 18; 1Jo 4:9) However, while the individual components do not include the verbal sense of being born, the usage of the term definitely does embrace the idea of descent or birth, for the Greek word geʹnos means “family stock; kinsfolk; offspring; race.” It is translated “race” in 1 Peter 2:9. The Latin Vulgate by Jerome renders mo·no·ge·nesʹ as unigenitus, meaning “only-begotten” or “only.” This relationship of the term to birth or descent is recognized by numerous lexicographers.

Edward Robinson’s Greek and English Lexicon of the New Testament (1885, p. 471) gives the definition of mo·no·ge·nesʹ as: “only born, only begotten, i.e. an only child.” The Greek-English Lexicon to the New Testament by W. Hickie (1956, p. 123) also gives: “only begotten.” The Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, edited by G. Kittel, states: “The μονο- [mo·no-] does not denote the source but the nature of derivation. Hence μονογενής [mo·no·ge·nesʹ] means ‘of sole descent,’ i.e., without brothers or sisters. This gives us the sense of only-begotten. The ref. is to the only child of one’s parents, primarily in relation to them. . . . But the word can also be used more generally without ref. to derivation in the sense of ‘unique,’ ‘unparalleled,’ ‘incomparable,’ though one should not confuse the refs. to class or species and to manner.”—Translator and editor, G. Bromiley, 1969, Vol. IV, p. 738.

As to the use of the term in the Christian Greek Scriptures or “New Testament,” this latter work (pp. 739-741) says: “It means ‘only-begotten.’ . . . In [John] 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9; [John] 1:18 the relation of Jesus is not just compared to that of an only child to its father. It is the relation of the only-begotten to the Father. . . . In Jn. 1:14, 18; 3:16, 18; 1 Jn. 4:9 μονογενής denotes more than the uniqueness or incomparability of Jesus. In all these verses He is expressly called the Son, and He is regarded as such in 1:14. In Jn. μονογενής denotes the origin of Jesus. He is μονογενής as the only-begotten.”

In view of these statements and in view of the plain evidence of the Scriptures themselves, there is no reason for objecting to translations showing that Jesus is not merely God’s unique or incomparable Son but also his “only-begotten Son,” hence descended from God in the sense of being produced by God. This is confirmed by apostolic references to this Son as “the firstborn of all creation” and as “the One born [form of gen·naʹo] from God” (Col 1:15; 1Jo 5:18), while Jesus himself states that he is “the beginning of the creation by God.”—Re 3:14.

Jesus is God’s “firstborn” (Col 1:15) as God’s first creation, called “the Word” in his prehuman existence. (Joh 1:1) The word “beginning” in John 1:1 cannot refer to the “beginning” of God the Creator, for he is eternal, having no beginning. (Ps 90:2) It must therefore refer to the beginning of creation, when the Word was brought forth by God as his firstborn Son. The term “beginning” is used in various other texts similarly to describe the start of some period or career or course, such as the “beginning” of the Christian career of those to whom John wrote his first letter (1Jo 2:7; 3:11), the “beginning” of Satan’s rebellious course (1Jo 3:8), or the “beginning” of Judas’ deflection from righteousness. Joh 6:64 Jesus is the “only-begotten Son” (Joh 3:16) in that he is the only one of God’s sons, spirit or human, created solely by God, for all others were created through, or “by means of,” that firstborn Son.—Col 1:16, 17

Jesus, of course, continued to be God’s Son when born as a human, even as he had been in his prehuman existence. His birth was not the result of conception by the seed, or sperm, of any human male descended from Adam, but was by action of God’s holy spirit. Mt 1:20, 25; Lu 1:30-35; Mt 22:42-45.

However, about 30 years after his birth as a human, when he was immersed by John the Baptizer, God’s spirit came upon Jesus and God spoke, saying: “You are my Son, the beloved; I have approved you.” (Lu 3:21-23; Mt 3:16, 17) Evidently Jesus, the man, was then “born again” to be a spiritual Son with the hope of returning to life in heaven, and he was anointed by spirit to be God’s appointed king and high priest. (Joh 3:3-6; compare 17:4, 5 A similar expression was made by God at the transfiguration on the mount, in which vision Jesus was seen in Kingdom glory. Mt 16:28; 17:1-5.) With regard to Jesus’ resurrection from the dead, Paul applied part of Psalm 2 to that occasion, quoting God’s words, “You are my son, I have become your Father this day,” and he also applied words from God’s covenant with David, namely: “I myself shall become his father, and he himself will become my son.” (Ps 2:7; 2Sa 7:14; Ac 13:33; Heb 1:5; compare Heb 5:5.) By his resurrection from the dead to spirit life, Jesus was “declared God’s Son” (Ro 1:4), “declared righteous in spirit.”—1Ti 3:16.

Thus, it is seen that, even as David as a grown man could ‘become God’s son’ in a special sense, so, too, Christ Jesus also ‘became God’s Son’ in a special way, at the time of his baptism and at his resurrection, and also, evidently, at the time of his entrance into full Kingdom glory.
 

BARNEY BRIGHT

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All of these are mere arguments as to why the scriptures do not really mean what they say.

I will pray that these arguments might be demolished as strongholds within your thinking.

2Co 10:3, For though we walk in the flesh, we do not war after the flesh:
2Co 10:4, (For the weapons of our warfare are not carnal, but mighty through God to the pulling down of strong holds;)
2Co 10:5, Casting down imaginations, and every high thing that exalteth itself against the knowledge of God, and bringing into captivity every thought to the obedience of Christ;

For prayer is the heavy artillery of the full armor of God:

Eph 6:13, Wherefore take unto you the whole armour of God, that ye may be able to withstand in the evil day, and having done all, to stand.
Eph 6:14, Stand therefore, having your loins girt about with truth, and having on the breastplate of righteousness;
Eph 6:15, And your feet shod with the preparation of the gospel of peace;
Eph 6:16, Above all, taking the shield of faith, wherewith ye shall be able to quench all the fiery darts of the wicked.
Eph 6:17, And take the helmet of salvation, and the sword of the Spirit, which is the word of God:
Eph 6:18, Praying always with all prayer and supplication in the Spirit, and watching thereunto with all perseverance and supplication for all saints;

You and others like you don't have faith that The True God Jehovah has an Only Begotten Son who he sent to The World of Mankind to save The World of Mankind. You choose to interpret a scripture like John 3:16 and other scriptures that say Jesus is The Only Begotten Son of God and say that God sent himself, therefore, you deny it was the Only Begotten Son of God that was sent to The World of Mankind. John 1:14 says the Word became flesh and because you and others like you believe The Word to be God and not The Only Begotten Son of God you deny it was The Only Begotten Son of God who became human.
 

justbyfaith

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God became the Son when He incarnated...He became the Son when He took on human flesh.

The verse for this is Hebrews 10:5. God the Father prepared a body for Himself that, after He came to dwell in it, He, speaking to His former self, said that He had prepared it for Him.

The definition of the term "Son of God" has within it the understanding that He is the Son of God because of the hypostatic union...that He is fully God and fully Man.

So, when the Father sent His only begotten Son....what He did was that He made a body of human flesh, according to the seed of David (Romans 1:3) and dwelt in it as God (Isaiah 45:11).

More accurately, the Holy Ghost became one with the egg in the womb of the virgin Mary (Luke 1:35), creating a zygote that is 100% Man and 100% God...who would grow up to become Jesus Christ, the Son of the living God.
 
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