Is God's word preserved in the Textus Receptus or the Majority Text?

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SavedInHim

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This isn't a who's right and who's wrong debate; I'm curious which makes more sense to you, and why.

If God has preserved His word, does it seem more likely that He would've done it in one Greek text (the Textus Receptus) or in a collection of the largest number of surviving manuscripts (the Majority Text)? The latter makes more sense to me. If only the Textus Receptus is inspired, what are we to do with all the manuscripts out there that weren't used by Erasmus, just ignore them? And what about all the believers who came before Erasmus? Did they not have the true word of God?

The manuscripts that Erasmus drew from were of the same type as those which makes up the Majority Text; there's just a lot more of them available today. If Erasmus were alive today, wouldn't he consult those manuscripts as well?
 
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Hobie

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This isn't a who's right and who's wrong debate; I'm curious which makes more sense to you, and why.

If God has preserved His word, does it seem more likely that He would've done it in one Greek text (the Textus Receptus) or in a collection of the largest number of surviving manuscripts (the Majority Text)? The latter makes more sense to me. If only the Textus Receptus is inspired, what are we to do with all the manuscripts out there that weren't used by Erasmus, just ignore them? And what about all the believers who came before Erasmus? Did they not have the true word of God?

The manuscripts that Erasmus drew from were of the same type as those which makes up the Majority Text; there's just a lot more of them available today. If Erasmus were alive today, wouldn't he consult those manuscripts as well?
Its like the choices of what to put in your car when it comes to fuel, do you put in what you know comes from a good source, or do you get some that has been corrupted with other liquids that have seeped in.....
 

SavedInHim

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Its like the choices of what to put in your car when it comes to fuel, do you put in what you know comes from a good source, or do you get some that has been corrupted with other liquids that have seeped in.....
The question has nothing to do with corrupted vs. not corrupted. It is: Which method of preservation makes more sense to you, one that puts all the eggs in one basket or one that utilizes the most possible baskets? Please explain why.
 
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Pierac

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This isn't a who's right and who's wrong debate; I'm curious which makes more sense to you, and why.

If God has preserved His word, does it seem more likely that He would've done it in one Greek text (the Textus Receptus) or in a collection of the largest number of surviving manuscripts (the Majority Text)? The latter makes more sense to me. If only the Textus Receptus is inspired, what are we to do with all the manuscripts out there that weren't used by Erasmus, just ignore them? And what about all the believers who came before Erasmus? Did they not have the true word of God?

The manuscripts that Erasmus drew from were of the same type as those which makes up the Majority Text; there's just a lot more of them available today. If Erasmus were alive today, wouldn't he consult those manuscripts as well?

First of all... The Textus Receptus was many years in the making.... after so much work that had gone before... Bart Ehrman explains in his books...

“The first Western scholar to conceive the idea of producing a version of the Greek New Testament was a Spanish cardinal name Jimenes de Cisneros (1437-1517) under his leadership, a group of scholars… undertook a multi-volume edition of the Bible. This was a polyglot edition; that is, it reproduced the text of the Bible in a variety of languages. And so, the Old Testament was represented by the original Hebrew, the Latin Vulgate, and the Greek Septuagint, side-by-side in columns. The work was printed in a town called Alcala, whose Latin name is Complutum. For this reason, Jimenes’s edition is known as the Complutensian Polyglot”.

“Even though the content Complutensian Polyglot was the first printed edition of the Greek New Testament, it was not the first published version… Desiderius Erasmus must have studied the New Testament, along with other great works of antiquity, on and off for many years, and had considered at some point putting together an addition for printing. But it was only when he visited Basil in August of 1514 that he was persuaded by a publisher named Jonathan Froben to move forward. Both Erasmus and Froben knew that the Complutensian Polyglot was in the works, and so they made haste to publish a Greek text as quickly as possible… Erasmus went to Basil and search for suitable manuscripts that he could use as the basis of his text. For the most part, he relied on a mere handful of late medieval manuscripts, which he marked up as if he were copyediting a handwritten copy for the printer; the printer took the manuscripts and set his type directly from them.”

Bart Ehrman continues, It appears that Erasmus relied heavily on just one twelfth-century manuscript for the Gospels and another, also of the twelfth-century, for the book of Acts and the Epistles--although he was able to consult several other manuscripts and make corrections based on their readings. For the book of Revelations had to borrow a manuscript from his friend the German humanist Johannes Reuchlin; unfortunately, the manuscript was almost impossible to read in places, and it had lost its last page, which contained the final six verses of the book. In his haste to have the job done, in those places Erasmus simply uses the Latin Vulgate and translated it’s text back into Greek, thereby creating some textual readings found today in no surviving Greek manuscript. And this, as we will see, is the addition of the Greek New Testament that for all practical purposes was used by the translators of the King James Bible nearly a century later.” Erasmus’s editions (he made five, all based ultimately on this first rather hastily assembled one) became the standard form of the Greek text published by the Western Europe printers for more than 300 years. Numerous Greek editions followed, produced by publishers whose names are well-known to the scholars in this field; Stephanus (Robert Estienne), Theodore Beza, and Bonaventure and Abraham Elzevir. All these text, however, relied more or less on the text of their predecessors, and all those go back to the text Erasmus, with all its faults, based on just a handful of manuscripts (sometimes just two or even one--or in parts of Revelations, none!) that had been produced relatively late in the medieval period. Printers for the most part did not search out new manuscripts that might be older and better in order to base their text on them. Instead, they simply printed and reprinted the same text, making only minor changes.

The larger point I'm trying to make, however, is that all the subsequent editions--those of Stephanus included--ultimately go back to Erasmus’s editio princeps which was based on some rather late, and not necessarily reliable, Greek manuscripts. They were simply the ones he could lay his hands on.

There was one key passage of Scripture that Erasmus’s sources of manuscripts did not contain, however. This is the account of I John 5: 7-8, which scholars have called the Johannine Comma, found in the manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate but not in the vast majority of Greek manuscripts, a passage that had long been favored among Christian theologians, said is it the only passage in the entire Bible that explicitly delineates the doctrine of the Trinity.

KJV 1Jo 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

“More than anything else, it was this that outraged at theologians of his day, who accused Erasmus of tampering with the text in an attempt to eliminate the doctrine of the Trinity. As the story goes, Erasmus--possibly in an unguarded moment--agree that he would insert the verse in a future edition of his Greek New Testament on one condition: that his opponents produced a Greek manuscript in which the verse can be found (finding it in Latin manuscripts was not enough). And so a Greek manuscript was produced. In fact, it was produced for the occasion.
Despite his misgivings, Erasmus was true to his word and included the Johannine Comma in his next edition, and in all his subsequenteditions.” And so familiar passages to readers of the English Bible--from the King James in 1611 onward, up until modern editions of the 20th century--include the woman taken into adultery, the last 12 verses of Mark, and the Johannine Comma, even though none of these passages can be found in the oldest and superior manuscripts of the Greek New Testament. They entered into the English stream of consciousness merely by a chance of history, based on manuscripts that Erasmus just happen to have handy to him, and one
that was manufactured for his benefit.”


“The various Greek editions of the 16th and 17th centuries were so much alike that eventually printers could claim that they were the text that was universally accepted by all scholars and readers of the Greek New Testament as indeed they were, since there were no competitors! The most-quoted claim is found in an edition produced in 1633 by Abraham and Bonaventure Elzevir in which they told their readers, in words that have since become famous among scholars, that “You now have the text that is received by all, in which we have given nothing changed or corrupted.” The phrase of this line, especially the words “text that is received by all,” provides us with the common phrase Textus Receptus or the Received Text. It was the inferior textual form of the Textus Receptus that stood at the base of the earliest English translations, including the King James Bible, and other editions until near the end of the 19th century.”

Now.... You know.... the rest of the Story....
 

SavedInHim

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First of all... The Textus Receptus was many years in the making.... after so much work that had gone before... Bart Ehrman explains in his books...

“The first Western scholar to conceive the idea of producing a version of the Greek New Testament was a Spanish cardinal name Jimenes de Cisneros (1437-1517) under his leadership, a group of scholars… undertook a multi-volume edition of the Bible. This was a polyglot edition; that is, it reproduced the text of the Bible in a variety of languages. And so, the Old Testament was represented by the original Hebrew, the Latin Vulgate, and the Greek Septuagint, side-by-side in columns. The work was printed in a town called Alcala, whose Latin name is Complutum. For this reason, Jimenes’s edition is known as the Complutensian Polyglot”.

“Even though the content Complutensian Polyglot was the first printed edition of the Greek New Testament, it was not the first published version… Desiderius Erasmus must have studied the New Testament, along with other great works of antiquity, on and off for many years, and had considered at some point putting together an addition for printing. But it was only when he visited Basil in August of 1514 that he was persuaded by a publisher named Jonathan Froben to move forward. Both Erasmus and Froben knew that the Complutensian Polyglot was in the works, and so they made haste to publish a Greek text as quickly as possible… Erasmus went to Basil and search for suitable manuscripts that he could use as the basis of his text. For the most part, he relied on a mere handful of late medieval manuscripts, which he marked up as if he were copyediting a handwritten copy for the printer; the printer took the manuscripts and set his type directly from them.”

Bart Ehrman continues, It appears that Erasmus relied heavily on just one twelfth-century manuscript for the Gospels and another, also of the twelfth-century, for the book of Acts and the Epistles--although he was able to consult several other manuscripts and make corrections based on their readings. For the book of Revelations had to borrow a manuscript from his friend the German humanist Johannes Reuchlin; unfortunately, the manuscript was almost impossible to read in places, and it had lost its last page, which contained the final six verses of the book. In his haste to have the job done, in those places Erasmus simply uses the Latin Vulgate and translated it’s text back into Greek, thereby creating some textual readings found today in no surviving Greek manuscript. And this, as we will see, is the addition of the Greek New Testament that for all practical purposes was used by the translators of the King James Bible nearly a century later.” Erasmus’s editions (he made five, all based ultimately on this first rather hastily assembled one) became the standard form of the Greek text published by the Western Europe printers for more than 300 years. Numerous Greek editions followed, produced by publishers whose names are well-known to the scholars in this field; Stephanus (Robert Estienne), Theodore Beza, and Bonaventure and Abraham Elzevir. All these text, however, relied more or less on the text of their predecessors, and all those go back to the text Erasmus, with all its faults, based on just a handful of manuscripts (sometimes just two or even one--or in parts of Revelations, none!) that had been produced relatively late in the medieval period. Printers for the most part did not search out new manuscripts that might be older and better in order to base their text on them. Instead, they simply printed and reprinted the same text, making only minor changes.

The larger point I'm trying to make, however, is that all the subsequent editions--those of Stephanus included--ultimately go back to Erasmus’s editio princeps which was based on some rather late, and not necessarily reliable, Greek manuscripts. They were simply the ones he could lay his hands on.

There was one key passage of Scripture that Erasmus’s sources of manuscripts did not contain, however. This is the account of I John 5: 7-8, which scholars have called the Johannine Comma, found in the manuscripts of the Latin Vulgate but not in the vast majority of Greek manuscripts, a passage that had long been favored among Christian theologians, said is it the only passage in the entire Bible that explicitly delineates the doctrine of the Trinity.

KJV 1Jo 5:7 For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one. 8 And there are three that bear witness in earth, the spirit and the water, and the blood: and these three agree in one.

“More than anything else, it was this that outraged at theologians of his day, who accused Erasmus of tampering with the text in an attempt to eliminate the doctrine of the Trinity. As the story goes, Erasmus--possibly in an unguarded moment--agree that he would insert the verse in a future edition of his Greek New Testament on one condition: that his opponents produced a Greek manuscript in which the verse can be found (finding it in Latin manuscripts was not enough). And so a Greek manuscript was produced. In fact, it was produced for the occasion.
Despite his misgivings, Erasmus was true to his word and included the Johannine Comma in his next edition, and in all his subsequenteditions.” And so familiar passages to readers of the English Bible--from the King James in 1611 onward, up until modern editions of the 20th century--include the woman taken into adultery, the last 12 verses of Mark, and the Johannine Comma, even though none of these passages can be found in the oldest and superior manuscripts of the Greek New Testament. They entered into the English stream of consciousness merely by a chance of history, based on manuscripts that Erasmus just happen to have handy to him, and one
that was manufactured for his benefit.”


“The various Greek editions of the 16th and 17th centuries were so much alike that eventually printers could claim that they were the text that was universally accepted by all scholars and readers of the Greek New Testament as indeed they were, since there were no competitors! The most-quoted claim is found in an edition produced in 1633 by Abraham and Bonaventure Elzevir in which they told their readers, in words that have since become famous among scholars, that “You now have the text that is received by all, in which we have given nothing changed or corrupted.” The phrase of this line, especially the words “text that is received by all,” provides us with the common phrase Textus Receptus or the Received Text. It was the inferior textual form of the Textus Receptus that stood at the base of the earliest English translations, including the King James Bible, and other editions until near the end of the 19th century.”

Now.... You know.... the rest of the Story....
All well and good, but the question has nothing to do with the "rest of the story." I simply want to know what you think would be the best preservation method and why. Do you understand the question?
 
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Pierac

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All well and good, but the question has nothing to do with the "rest of the story." I simply want to know what you think would be the best preservation method and why. Do you understand the question?
Do you think the New Testament was written by God like the 10 commandments that were given to Moses?

Adam Clarke's Commentary on the Bible:
2Ti 3:16 -
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God - This sentence is not well translated; the original πασα γραφη θεοκνευστος ωφιλιμος προς διδασκαλιαν, κ. τ. λ. should be rendered: Every writing Divinely inspired is profitable for doctrine, etc. The particle και, and, is omitted by almost all the versions and many of the fathers, and certainly does not agree well with the text. The apostle is here, beyond all controversy, speaking of the writings of the Old Testament, which, because they came by Divine inspiration, he terms the Holy Scriptures, 2Ti_3:15; and it is of them alone that this passage is to be understood; and although all the New Testament came by as direct an inspiration as the Old, yet, as it was not collected at that time, not indeed complete, the apostle could have no reference to it.

On what authority do you think Adam Clark made the comment... although all the New Testament came by as direct an inspiration as the Old...

Based upon what?


Biblical Hermeneutics states:
Significant chronological disparities exist between St. John's telling of the life and death of Jesus and those of the synoptic gospels. For instance, St. John discusses a lot of Jesus' ministry, while the synoptics focus on the final year prior to his death. The synoptics place Jesus' death at 15 Nisan, while St. John places it at 14th Nisan (John 18:28 seems to make it clear that these dates cannot be reconciled through counting the days or times differently).
What might the purpose be of St. John's conflicting chronology? Might he have intended to demonstrate something to us metaphorically/allegorically/mystically by intentionally altering the chronology?
One common argument is that in John's gospel, but not in the synoptics, Jesus is referred to as the "lamb of God" (John 1:29 and 1:36) and in John but not in the synoptics Jesus dies at the same time as the passover lambs are slaughtered. For example, below is a quote from Ehrman's "Jesus, Interrupted", though this argument is certainly not original to him.

“Some have pointed out that Mark also indicates that Jesus died on a day that is called ‘the Day of Preparation’ (Mark 15:42). That is absolutely true — but what these readers fail to notice is that Mark tells us what he means by this phrase: it is the Day of Preparation ‘for the Sabbath’ (not the Day of Preparation for the Passover). In other words, in Mark, this is not the day before the Passover meal was eaten but the day before the Sabbath; it is called the day of ‘preparation’ because one had to prepare the meals for Saturday on Friday afternoon.
“…in Mark, Jesus eats the Passover meal (Thursday night) and is crucified the following morning. In John, Jesus does not eat the Passover meal but is crucified on the day before the Passover meal was to be eaten. Moreover, in Mark, Jesus is nailed to the cross at nine in the morning; in John, he is not condemned until noon, and then he is taken out and crucified….
“…I will point out a significant feature of John’s Gospel – the last of our Gospels to be written, probably some twenty-five years or so after Mark’s. John is the only Gospel that indicates that Jesus is ‘the lamb of God that takes away the sins of the world.’ This is declared by John the Baptist at the very beginning of the narrative (John 1:29) and again six verses later (John 1:35). Why, then, did John – our latest Gospel – change the day and time when Jesus died? It may be because in John’s Gospel, Jesus is the Passover Lamb, whose sacrifice brings salvation from sins. Exactly like the Passover Lamb, Jesus has to die on the day (the Day of Preparation) and the time (sometime after noon), when the Passover lambs were being slaughtered in the Temple.
“In other words, John has changed a historical datum in order to make a theological point: Jesus is the sacrificial lamb. And to convey this theological point, John has had to create a discrepancy between his account and the others.”
So John's timing emphasizes the connection between Jesus's death and the death of the lambs.

Of course, there are other possibilities. Some argue that the two accounts can be reconciled. Others argue that Mark is the one modifying the original chronology and that John gets it right. Roughly this theory is that there was a very early narrative of the passion (possibly oral, possibly in Aramaic) which followed John's chronology. The author of Mark either misunderstood what "day of preparation" meant (mistaking preparation for Passover with preparation for the Sabbath) or purposefully changed the narrative so that the Eucharist was the Passover Seder. (Note that John doesn't have the establishment of the Eucharist at the Last Supper.) But I wanted to give an answer to the narrow question you asked: why might John have wanted to change the chronology to make a spiritual point.

John told us why he wrote his gospel!!!

Joh 20:31 but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.


Think!
 

SavedInHim

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Do you think the New Testament was written by God like the 10 commandments that were given to Moses?

Adam Clarke's Commentary on the Bible:
2Ti 3:16 -
All Scripture is given by inspiration of God - This sentence is not well translated; the original πασα γραφη θεοκνευστος ωφιλιμος προς διδασκαλιαν, κ. τ. λ. should be rendered: Every writing Divinely inspired is profitable for doctrine, etc. The particle και, and, is omitted by almost all the versions and many of the fathers, and certainly does not agree well with the text. The apostle is here, beyond all controversy, speaking of the writings of the Old Testament, which, because they came by Divine inspiration, he terms the Holy Scriptures, 2Ti_3:15; and it is of them alone that this passage is to be understood; and although all the New Testament came by as direct an inspiration as the Old, yet, as it was not collected at that time, not indeed complete, the apostle could have no reference to it.

On what authority do you think Adam Clark made the comment... although all the New Testament came by as direct an inspiration as the Old...

Based upon what?


Biblical Hermeneutics states:
Significant chronological disparities exist between St. John's telling of the life and death of Jesus and those of the synoptic gospels. For instance, St. John discusses a lot of Jesus' ministry, while the synoptics focus on the final year prior to his death. The synoptics place Jesus' death at 15 Nisan, while St. John places it at 14th Nisan (John 18:28 seems to make it clear that these dates cannot be reconciled through counting the days or times differently).
What might the purpose be of St. John's conflicting chronology? Might he have intended to demonstrate something to us metaphorically/allegorically/mystically by intentionally altering the chronology?
One common argument is that in John's gospel, but not in the synoptics, Jesus is referred to as the "lamb of God" (John 1:29 and 1:36) and in John but not in the synoptics Jesus dies at the same time as the passover lambs are slaughtered. For example, below is a quote from Ehrman's "Jesus, Interrupted", though this argument is certainly not original to him.


So John's timing emphasizes the connection between Jesus's death and the death of the lambs.

Of course, there are other possibilities. Some argue that the two accounts can be reconciled. Others argue that Mark is the one modifying the original chronology and that John gets it right. Roughly this theory is that there was a very early narrative of the passion (possibly oral, possibly in Aramaic) which followed John's chronology. The author of Mark either misunderstood what "day of preparation" meant (mistaking preparation for Passover with preparation for the Sabbath) or purposefully changed the narrative so that the Eucharist was the Passover Seder. (Note that John doesn't have the establishment of the Eucharist at the Last Supper.) But I wanted to give an answer to the narrow question you asked: why might John have wanted to change the chronology to make a spiritual point.

John told us why he wrote his gospel!!!

Joh 20:31 but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name.


Think!
LOL, go in peace my friend.
 

marks

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All well and good, but the question has nothing to do with the "rest of the story." I simply want to know what you think would be the best preservation method and why. Do you understand the question?
I have two thoughts regarding this. One is that the true word of God would be that which was available throughout history, which means those "lost in the sands of time" for over 1000 years isn't it. The other is, I think, the point you are making, that the majority of manuscripts can be relied on more reasonably than those few aberant ones.

Much love!
 

Gabriel _Arch

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The question has nothing to do with corrupted vs. not corrupted. It is: Which method of preservation makes more sense to you, one that puts all the eggs in one basket or one that utilizes the most possible baskets? Please explain why.
Has the question occured to youof why God would use sin filled humans as his scribal messengers?

If God wants to send a message to us,would it be eternal and unchanging? As God is.
 

Deborah_

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If God has preserved His word, does it seem more likely that He would've done it in one Greek text (the Textus Receptus) or in a collection of the largest number of surviving manuscripts (the Majority Text)?
God's word is preserved in all the texts. The only issue is degrees of accuracy.

Minor errors started creeping in as soon as the first copies were made from the original manuscripts. But minor errors don't nullify the word of God. The obsession with absolute accuracy is a relatively modern thing, since the invention of printing. Before that, people lived with scribal errors - but they still had God's Word.
 

St. SteVen

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If God has preserved His word, does it seem more likely that He would've done it in one Greek text (the Textus Receptus) or in a collection of the largest number of surviving manuscripts (the Majority Text)?
There are actually THREE choices, not just TWO. Add the Critical text. See below.

Bible translation is a process of Textual Criticism. (defined below) There are no original manuscripts.

Majority Text vs. Critical Text vs. Textus Receptus – Textual Criticism 101​

Majority Text vs. Critical Text vs. Textus Receptus - Textual Criticism 101 - Berean Patriot

The practice of Textual Criticism is notcriticizing the Bible“, it’s trying to recover the Bible’s original text. A “textual critic” is not someone who criticizes the Bible, but someone who tries their best to reconstruct the original text.

It shouldn’t come as a surprise, but we don’t have the original documents that Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, and other New Testament writers wrote. They were originally written on either papyrus (essentially paper) or possibly parchment (animal skins) which have long since degraded with time and use. However, the originals were copied many, many times. Those copies were copied, which were copied, which were copied, which were

Well, you get the idea.

So what we have are copies of copies of the original (sometimes many generations of copying deep). Before Gutenberg invented the printing press in the early-mid 1400s, everything was copied by hand. Therefore, it should come as no surprise that the scribes who did the copying occasionally made some mistakes.

When two copies disagree with each other, you have a variant in the text between two documents: this is (unsurprisingly) called a “Textual Variant”.

/
 
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Hobie

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The question has nothing to do with corrupted vs. not corrupted. It is: Which method of preservation makes more sense to you, one that puts all the eggs in one basket or one that utilizes the most possible baskets? Please explain why.
The influence of Gnosticism in the Alexandrian codices is what led to them being changed and parts taken out, that much is clear. Now whether you want to call it corruption is up to each person as they see the damage done and the purpose behind it. Everyone must look carefully and decide for themselves..
 

St. SteVen

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The influence of Gnosticism in the Alexandrian codices is what led to them being changed and parts taken out, that much is clear. Now whether you want to call it corruption is up to each person as they see the damage done and the purpose behind it. Everyone must look carefully and decide for themselves..
Aren't the Alexandrian texts considered to be the oldest and most original?
They were best preserved because they were kept in Egypt's dry climate.

/
 

Wrangler

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Is God's word preserved in the Textus Receptus or the Majority Text?​

This isn't a who's right and who's wrong debate; I'm curious which makes more sense to you, and why.
Sure it is a who's right and wrong debate! The answer is whichever the KJV is based on is wrong. ;)

Just kidding. Sort of.

Seriously, your question has an implied premise that I reject. False Alternative is the fallacy in your question. God's word is, for the most part, preserved in both. As you examine both sets of texts, you find them much more alike than different.

I reject the notion of democracy, that majority rules in terms of what is right. Another fallacy, Appeal to Majority.

Modern translations use older transcripts than those the KJV is based on. It is this principle that the closer to the source, the fewer the manmade copies, the more accurate the text is to be.

Hope this helps!
 

SavedInHim

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Sure it is a who's right and wrong debate! The answer is whichever the KJV is based on is wrong. ;)

Just kidding. Sort of.

Seriously, your question has an implied premise that I reject. False Alternative is the fallacy in your question. God's word is, for the most part, preserved in both. As you examine both sets of texts, you find them much more alike than different.

I reject the notion of democracy, that majority rules in terms of what is right. Another fallacy, Appeal to Majority.

Modern translations use older transcripts than those the KJV is based on. It is this principle that the closer to the source, the fewer the manmade copies, the more accurate the text is to be.

Hope this helps!
My question is narrowly focused on the Majority Text and the Textus Receptus for a reason; simply put, that's what I wanted to discuss. I'm aware there are a lot of other manuscripts and issues that could be discussed; if I wanted to discuss them I would've started a thread about them. Do you understand the question?
 

Hobie

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Aren't the Alexandrian texts considered to be the oldest and most original?
They were best preserved because they were kept in Egypt's dry climate.

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Not really, they were found in a waste basket in Sinai because they were recognized for what they were, and were not used. The ones in the churches and synagogues had much use, so were used up and wore out, the Alexandrian ones, not so much.