Part 1
THE Corinthians 15:24 question, "The Son Subject to the Father?" well let's see.
You didn't wait. Are you not a man of your word? Perhaps you need to enlighten me with regard to the meaning of "before" since according to you I can't read a dictionary. <chuckle>
revelation time "diversified oneness" answers the question.
Ulay, ulay lo'. Perhaps there is yet "another" answer that you have not considered.
SUBJECT: G5293 ὑποτάσσω hupotasso (hoop-ot-as'-so) v. According to Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary of American English. the Greek word here, G5293 ὑποτάσσω hupotasso, this word is used as a verb, and not a noun. (that will alert one quickly). as a verb one can quickly see, or understand what subject means here in context. a. put within, b. will. lets look at both and understand this revelation. according to the second definition of subject in the Noah Webster's 1828 Dictionary as a verb, it means definition #2. To put under or within the power of. (there is our revelation, “within” within the power of). lets back this up, and see how we got this revelation with our second, and complete understanding.
Let's see if I am getting this correctly: Basically what you are telling me is:
A) You found "hupotasso" in a Webster's 1828 dictionary? However, we both know the truth, you looked up "subject" which is listed as an adj., noun and a transitive verb and of 7 entries under verb you selected that which best suited your desired intent / need.
B) That we now use an English dictionary from 18 centuries later, to determine / translate / render / understand the meaning of the NT Greek language.
C) That we pick and choose from any dictionary any definition that best suits our own purposes to place our desired intent and meaning upon the text and to determine the text.
D) So "our revelation" of "within" is the definition that best suits your intended imposition upon the text.
Is that about the gist of it? I'll follow up with this below:
G5293 ὑποτάσσω hupotasso (hoop-ot-as'-so) as a verb which means 1. to subordinate
2. (reflexively) to obey
[from G5259 and G5021]
KJV: be under obedience (obedient), put under, subdue unto, (be, make) subject (to, unto), be (put) in subjection (to, under), submit self unto.
please notice, the KJV can translate subject, G5293 ὑποτάσσω hupotasso, as be under obedience, which bring us to our second understanding.
So here again, as you have repeatedly attempted to do with Hebrew, you are picking a manner in which the authors of the KJV rendered a conjugation of hupotasso and are attempting to place it as you desire, in the manner in which you desire the text to mean / read.
So once again you have chosen a manner in which something was rendered in a single occurrence elsewhere, and have chosen in a manner devised of your own heart, that is how it should be rendered elsewhere. And, by using an English dictionary in attempt to backwards translate English into Greek to determine the meaning of the Greek text.
You have chosen "be under obedience" which the authors of the KJV translated it in that manner only once, in 1 Corinthians 14:34, a manner devised of your own heart.
In 1 Corinthians 14:34: In the WH and NA it is hupotasseothosan, the 3rd pers. pl. pres. pass. and only occurs in this one verse.
In the MT and TR it is hupotassesthai, the pres. mid. infin. which occurs only in Rom 13:5, 1 Cor 14:34, Tit 2:3 and 3:1.
Yet, you would have me to believe, that this is also the manner in which the 6 occurrences in 1 Corinthians 15:27-28 should be rendered. Or, at the very least, that is also the manner that at least one of those six occurrences should be understood / rendered.
In 1 Corinthians 15:27 (begins v26 in the NA) we have:
hupetaxen ; hupotetaktai ; hupotaxantos
In 1 Corinthians 15:28:
hupotage ; hupotagesetai ; hupotaxanti
Notice, not one of the 6 occurrences in 1 Corinthians 15:27-28 are the same as 1 Corinthians 14:34, which is the instance you have chosen and devised of your own heart best fits.
So let's list out the conjugations:
1. 3rd pers. sing. aor. act. indic.
sg. act. aor. not pl. pres. pass.
Strike 1
2. 3rd pers. sg. perf. pass. indic.
sg. perf. indic. not pl. mid. infin.
Strike 2
3. gen. masc. sg. aor. act. part.
Alex, I'll take "What is a participle?" for 100.
Strike 3
4. 3rd pers. sg. 2 aor. pass. subj.
No, that doesn't seem to fit either.
Strike 4
5. 3rd pers. sg. 2 fut. pass. indic.
fut. indic. not pres. infin.
Strike 5
6. dat. sg. m. aor. act. part.
Alex, I'll take "What is a participle?" for 1000.
Strike 6
And since it's all Greek to me, perhaps you can explain the subtleties of each of the above.
Oh, and don't worry if you don't know all the abbreviations that I used, just look in the front of your dictionary. <grin>
1 Corinthians 14:34 : be subject
1 Corinthians 15:27-28
1. he subjected
2. have been subjected
3. having subjected
4. is / are subjected
5. will be subjected
6. having subjected
1Co 15:27 For, He put all things
in subjection (active) under his feet. But when he saith, All things are put
in subjection (sg. perf. indic.), it is evident that he is excepted who did
subject (part.) all things unto him. 28 And when all things
have been subjected (sg. 2 aor. subj.) unto him, then shall the Son also himself
be subjected (sg. 2 fut. indic.) to him that
did subject (part.) all things unto him, that God may be all in all.
So, what part of speech does your 1828 Webster's define "subjection" as?
What part of speech does your 1828 Webster's define "subjected" as?
So you looked up "subject" in your 1828 Webster's and took the verb definition that best suited the devises of your own heart, and attempted to apply that to a participle. Pure genius! Oh. and of course, I am quoting the 1901 ASV, you are using the KJV. So let's be fair and not try to do that which you attempt to do:
1Co 15:27 For he hath put all things
under his feet. But when he saith, all things
are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things
under, him.
1Co 15:28 And when all things
shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself
be subject unto him that put all things
under, him, that God may be all in all.
So, it's not quite what you attempted to make it out to be.
The son shall subject himself by:
1Co 15:24b when he shall deliver up the kingdom to God, even the Father; when he shall have abolished all rule and all authority and power.
And in delivering up the kingdom, will be subjected to the one who subjected all things under the son, with the exception, of the one who did the subjecting. Unless of course, you prefer Yeshua` be subject as in submission, in silence, as a woman in a church.
You can pick and choose your "definitions" all you want, you can attempt to choose whatever manner the authors of the KJV translated it in one place, and try to smear some goo on it and make it stick somewhere else in attempt to render the text according to the device of your own heart. I care not what you do. However, you have been shown for what you are attempting to do. You have been shown the error of such. What you choose to do now ... It's all upon you. I care not.
<snipped until I am convinced you are ready to move on to the next point>
To be continued.