I'm not sure what I'm addressing Oz!wondering,
The conclusion revolves around the meaning of the NT Greek , aiwnios (eternal).
What's the meaning of 'eternal' destruction, for example, in 2 Thess 1:9?
Arndt & Gingrich’s Greek lexicon studied aiwnios from the time of the Septuagint. It concluded that it means ‘eternal’ and in many passages, including Matt. 25:46, it means ‘without end … eternal life’ (Arndt & Gingrich 1957:28).
Exegete Richard Lenski explained further regarding 2 Thess 1:9:
Those who find annihilation in it [destruction] would thereby abolish hell, others misunderstand aiwnios and reduce it to a long term which, however, eventually ends. There is no time beyond the last day, either short or long, but only timelessness, eternity, "the eon to come"; this is what the adjective [aiwnios] means, which is true of the zwe or "life" of the blessed as it is true of the "destruction" of the damned. The destruction occurs "away from the Lord's face" and thus in the outer darkness (Lenski 1937:388-389).
Since the opportunity to take advantage of responding to the Gospel is only in this life on earth, the result of Jesus' sacrifice will be experienced in the timelessness of eternity - either in life or damnation.
Is this what you are driving at or are you addressing a different topic?
Oz
Works consulted
Arndt, W F & Gingrich, F W 1957. A Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature. Chicago: The University of Chicago Press (limited edition licensed to Zondervan Publishing House).
Lenski, R C H 1937/1946/1961/2001. Commentary on the New Testament: The interpretation of St. Paul’s epistles to the Colossians, to the Thessalonians, to Timothy, to Titus, and to Philemon. [Lutheran Book Concern 1937; The Wartburg Press 1945; Augsburg Publishing House 1961; Peabody, Massachusetts: Hendrickson Publishers Inc. 2001, limited edition].
This is a new thought to me and I haven't thought of it enough.
I did want to get other person's thoughts on it.
Haven't even answered them yet because I can't get my thoughts together, but it's something that seemed interesting to me.
We say that even the O.T. persons were saved by faith but by the sacrifice of Jesus which had not even happened yet.
So are FUTURE persons saved because in the PAST Jesus died on the cross...
or is His sacrifice ONGOING in some way.
If His sacrifice was valid for those in the pre-cross days...
What makes it be valid for the post-cross days...
Maybe it lives through time; maybe it's not a one time happening.
He died once and for all could just mean that nothing else is necessary anymore.
One poster thought I was referring to the catholic Mass...this is NOT what I'm referring to. Maybe it's just too difficult to talk about time and timelessness.
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