St. SteVen
Well-Known Member
I know a little Greek...
He owns the gas station on the corner...
Really a good guy, actually.
Is Reincarnation baloney?
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He owns the gas station on the corner...
Really a good guy, actually.
St. SteVen
Well-Known Member
Exactly. Easy to understand really.
Unless you call it reincarnation. Then many church/forum folks get up in arms.
Jesus said, "Unless you be born again..." (from what?)
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
No!
Hebrews 9:27
And as it is appointed for men to die once, but after this the judgment, (not come back as a baby)
St. SteVen
Well-Known Member
Looks like you missed a dozen pages of biblical explanation.
And frankly, Hebrews nine is a poor apologetic.
What happens when you add the context of verse 28?
Note the "just as" and "so also" statements.
How is it that people die that is the same as how Christ died and returned to life?
Christ appeared again after death. Where did he appear?
Hebrews 9:27-28 New English Translation
And just as people[a] are appointed to die once, and then to face judgment,[b]
28 so also, after Christ was offered once to bear the sins of many,[c] to those who
eagerly await him he will appear a second time, not to bear sin[d] but to bring salvation.[e]
1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
I don't need pages and pages to know the answer to reincarnation and where it all started.
Grand entrance.
Jesus covered that for us with Nicodemus. That’s not what anyone here is suggesting.
I wanted to come back to this since you asked but no one responded.
Can a spiritual being reproduce as humans can? ---- No.
Where did Jesus come from? Who is the father? Who is the mother? ---- He was born in Bethlehem. His father was Joseph, his mother was Mary- just as scripture inform us.
One is God (spiritual) and one is human. (physical) His father was God in the very same way that God is your father. Our father. This he taught. Scripture says that he (Jesus) was like us in every way. The physical and spiritual are like two sides of a coin, that while they are imprinted on one coin, you can only examine one side at a time. Your thinking is influenced by what you've come to believe in this regard-- that somehow God "fathered" Jesus in some unnatural way.
Let me show you something interesting...
Now the man was intimate with his wife Eve, and she became pregnant and gave birth to Cain.
From the very beginning, we understand how babies are made. That 'intimacy' was by design. It's how we were made and how it works... every baby since. We even joke about how 'he knew her, in a biblical way.' Scripture firmly establishes that this is "how" the woman became pregnant. -How she conceived a child. No intimacy, no conception.... no coming together-- no child. And we know that spirits don't have sex with physical people.... two sides of the same coin. But opposite perspectives.
Here's the interesting part-- Listen carefully to what Eve says, after she gives birth---
Then she said, “I have created a man just as the LORD did!”
What do you suppose she meant? She wasn't there when Adam was created-- so what is her understanding based on? And why would she phrase it like that?
Lastly-- that's not what Jesus taught. What he actually taught was this>>
“Have you not read that from the beginning the Creator made them male and female, and said, ‘For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and will be united with his wife, and the two will become one flesh’? So they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let no one separate.”
He taught (quoting directly from Genesis 2, that this "union" was intended to be permanent.
That is why a man leaves his father and mother and unites with his wife, and they become one family.
This is the "how" from a spiritual perspective-- the other side of the coin. And this is what Eve's understanding is based upon when she says that she created a child just as God did. She understands that a child comes from a union--- that it is produced from that intimacy and that Adam is no exception. But how? Well to understand the spiritual, look at the physical model. Eve tells you-- it's the same way.
Wrangler
Well-Known Member
What you say contradicts explicit Scripture:
Matthew 1:18-21
18 This is how Jesus the Messiah was born. His mother, Mary, was engaged to be married to Joseph. But before the marriage took place, while she was still a virgin, she became pregnant through the power of the Holy Spirit. 19 Joseph, to whom she was engaged, was a righteous man and did not want to disgrace her publicly, so he decided to break the engagement[a] quietly.
20 As he considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream. “Joseph, son of David,” the angel said, “do not be afraid to take Mary as your wife. For the child within her was conceived by the Holy Spirit. 21 And she will have a son, and you are to name him Jesus, for he will save his people from their sins.”
If what you're saying is true, why would Joseph want to divorce Mary (or end her bethronement)? IF he fathered Jesus in the natural way, he would know how Mary came to be child. An Angel of the Lord would not have to come and tell him his conception was supernatural.
All asked and answered in another thread.
Two scenarios are plausible-- He saw her pregnant beforehand in a dream, OR -he was unable to show proof of her virginity at their coming together when he took her as his wife on their wedding day. I understand the latter to be the case.
The account has the angel reassuring him at that time, to not be afraid to take her as his wife, despite not having this physical evidence--
Here's an example from scripture--
Suppose a man marries a woman, sleeps with her, and then rejects her, accusing her of impropriety and defaming her reputation by saying, “I married this woman but when I approached her for marital relations I discovered she was not a virgin!”
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1stCenturyLady
Well-Known Member
St. SteVen
Well-Known Member
St. SteVen
Well-Known Member
Timtofly
Well-Known Member
Just what it says...
He took his wife- and there is only one way a man takes a wife in scriptural terms. They consummated the union by having sex.
Then--- they never had sex again until after the baby was born. The 'marital relations' mentioned refers specifically to after they were married, which means they already had sex. Verse 18 mentions- before they came together -which specifically means before they moved into one house and cohabitated together as man and wife. But before that they became man and wife-- by consummating the union on their wedding day as with all Hebrew wedding ceremonies.
Nothing. I don't ever even ride the bus.
Timtofly
Well-Known Member
This seems to be a lot of assumptions on your part. It is like saying Noah built an ark, but Abraham lived in the ark. None of your points are related to each other in Scripture, but you take the words from the Bible and form your own reality.
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