Did Jesus ever say “I am”? Actually he did many times but not once was he claiming to be God Almighty.
Is “I AM” really the meaning of God’s name? The whole premise for this assumption is supposed to be Exodus 3:13-15, so how does the Tanakh render those verses?
"13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?" יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:
14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'" ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:
15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation. טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:"
So who is "The Lord God" there? And what does his name mean? The Tanakh understood God's words to mean that God was not simply self identifying, but revealing a new aspect to a name they already knew. God would "be" or "become" whatever he needed to "be" to fulfill his purpose in connection with them.....what was his purpose? To bring his Messiah into the world of mankind. It was a rough trip, but he got there.
You do know that the Jews were looking for an excuse (any excuse) to silence Jesus for good, don't you? A charge of blasphemy would do the trick they reckoned.....but they did not count on Pilate finding him innocent of any capital offense. They had to threaten Pilate's political career to get their way.
John 10:31-36...reveals their intent....
"The Jews picked up stones again to stone Him. 32 Jesus replied to them, “I showed you many good works from the Father; for which of them are you stoning Me?” 33 The Jews answered Him, “We are not stoning You for a good work, but for blasphemy; and because You, being a man, make Yourself out to be God.” 34 Jesus answered them, “Has it not been written in your Law: ‘I said, you are gods’? 35 If he called them gods, to whom the word of God came (and the Scripture cannot be nullified), 36 are you saying of Him whom the Father sanctified and sent into the world, ‘You are blaspheming,’ because I said, ‘I am the Son of God’?"
So here was an excellent opportunity to identify himself as "God" because the Jews were accusing him of blasphemy anyway....but what did he say.....?
‘I am the Son of God’.....not the same claim at all.
OK...so what was Jesus really saying in John 8:56?....because he was not telling the Jews that he was God.
When Jesus said "I am" which he did often, why pick on this one verse to supposedly support your trinity?
What does "I am" (eimi) actually mean in Greek according to Strongs Concordance?
"εἰμί eimí, i-mee'; the first person singular present indicative; a prolonged form of a primary and defective verb; I exist (used only when emphatic):—am, have been It is, I was, , G1488, G1498, G1511, G1527, G2258, G2071, G2070, G2075, G2076, G2771, G2468, G5600."
So when Jesus used the term "eimi" it could be rendered a number of ways according to the Greek.
So what is the most likely definition of what Jesus said there?
He was answering a question about his age, not his status as a deity, so when he said "Before Abraham was,
I am", that does not make grammatical sense. He is using present tense to answer a question about the past. Since eimi can be rendered "I have been" or "I was", that makes way more sense if one is not trying to prop up a trinity. If Jesus was saying that existed before Abraham, then that is what he said.....English translators try to squeeze inference to the trinity in there, when it did not belong. (and never did)
Again, just claiming to be "the Son of God" was considered blasphemy to them....but they were desperate to put him to death.....they were grasping for any excuse.
What is a "son of God" to a Jew? Their scriptures referred to "sons of God" and these include angels, (Genesis 6:2. Job 1:6) Adam as the first created human 'son of God', (Luke 3:38) and humans with whom God has dealt on the basis of covenant relationship. (Exodus 4:22; Deuteronomy 14:1)
Are you serious?
Where is the direct statement of him being "God"? It is indisputable that he is the "Son of God" because that is what he claimed to be himself.....but there is not one single mention of "God the Son" or "God the Holy Spirit" in the Bible......find me one scripture where Jesus or his Father ever claim equality.....or where they admit to being part of a godhead.
Since he is not "the Son as God" (which is nowhere stated) you have nothing to back up what you believe.
"God is a spirit" according to the apostle John....and as a Spirit Being, Jehovah begat other spirit sons....the pre-human Jesus was his "firstborn". (Colossians 1:15)
The son of a King is a prince and he can be a co-regent with his Father, but will not be an absolute Monarch unless his Father dies. The Father of this son will never die, and so the co-regent kingship of Jesus Christ will terminate at the end of the designated 1000 year rule of his Kingdom, bringing mankind back into a reconciled relationship with their Creator....
Christ came to restore God's first purpose for mankind and this earth that he intended to be their permanent home.
Did you think he put us here just to take the best of us to heaven, or to torture others in hell? Where did that idea even come from? Not from the Bible I can tell you.....