JESUS, the Holy Spirit, the Only True God.

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APAK

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@101G

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You said:

"the True doctrine of God is that he is "a" Spirit. and the Holy Spirit is that Spirit who is JESUS.

the scriptures don't lie. we as "Diversified Oneness" place the Holy Spirit as First and Last in the Godhead as the bible clearly states. one Person Diversified in flesh which in the OT, the begining, was to come."

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So what are you saying? That God is one of many spirits and the Godhead is the Holy Spirit = Jesus? Well that's a new modern twisted version of the identity of God and Jesus.

Scripture says that God and the Father of Jesus, and true believers is composed of the only divine Spirit and this Spirit is Holy. Scripture does not say anywhere that Jesus =Holy Spirit. The Godhead or Godhood as it was originally translated over 400 years ago is all about the divinity of God Almighty alone, and not Jesus or anyone else.

This diversification hypothesis of yours about the "spirit and flesh" you promote is a twisted and confusing take on who is God and who is Jesus.

When I read your post I still cannot find any scripture that resembles this thought. Maybe you can clearly explain yourself because you have managed to confuse me at least. What I read is your writing is pure fantasy. I think you are having a difficult time developing your hypothesis that is very confusing here and is cannot be matured because scripture is not on your side.

Bless you,

APAK
 

101G

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So what are you saying? That God is one of many spirits and the Godhead is the Holy Spirit = Jesus? Well that's a new modern twisted version of the identity of God and Jesus.
first thanks for the reply. #1. don't try to put words in my mouth. #2. God is "A" Spirit, per John 4:24. #3. Jesus is the one and only true Spirit.
Scripture says that God and the Father of Jesus
Father is a title of the Holy Spirit, to whom his share in flesh is Father to. but Isaiah 9:6 clearly says JESUS, the Son is the EVERLASTING Father.
Scripture does not say anywhere that Jesus =Holy Spirit
scripture, John 14:16-18, and 2 Corinthians 3:17 and 1 Peter 1:10 & 11, and Revelation 1:8. well all of Revelation.
The Godhead or Godhood as it was originally translated over 400 years ago is all about the divinity of God Almighty alone, and not Jesus or anyone else.
good glad you said that, reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24.
This diversification hypothesis of yours about the "spirit and flesh" you promote is a twisted and confusing take on who is God and who is Jesus.

When I read your post I still cannot find any scripture that resembles this thought. Maybe you can clearly explain yourself because you have managed to confuse me at least.
once more, Jesus shared in flesh and blood is the "Offspring". Revelation 22:16 "I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, and the bright and morning star".

an offspring is flesh and blood as a human, John 1:14 "And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth".

now apak, what do "offspring" mean? it's the Greek word,
G1085 γένος genos (ǰe'-nos) n.
kin.
{abstract or concrete, literal or figurative, individual or collective}
[from G1096]
KJV: born, country(-man), diversity, generation, kind(-red), nation, offspring, stock

the word offspring can be translated as "diversity". flesh was born and spirit given. understand now?.
What I read is your writing is pure fantasy. I think you are having a difficult time developing your hypothesis that is very confusing here and is cannot be matured because scripture is not on your side.
well just go back and read all of my POSTS and get an understanding.

Now may I ask you a question. since you said the doctrine I believe in is pure fantasy, reconcile John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24,

and also you can might help you fellow believers with post #277.

PICJAG.
 

101G

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GINOLJC, to all.

while we are waiting for apak responses,

To all of my trinitarians friends out there in the wilderness who say God changes NOT, (which is true), but you has applied it fasley. matthews chapter 17 disprove your theory as in ERROR, as to nature, and likewise in Genesis chapter 6 to mental awareness of one's mind, hence repentance. what you did was misapplied the statement in Malachi to mean something else, hence you're now stuck in a box, and cain't get out.

solution, two choices. admit that you're wrong and seek the truth, or allow the devil to continue to use you in his lie in order to try in get you out of his box that he has bound you in. only one problem with the latter. one must tell another lie to cover the last one and then it just snowballs until the next box.

it's one thing true about a lie. it's always running. it's running for it's life because it knows it don't have long to live. so don't let the divel use you for his lie. it's not yours to carry.

I suggest you STOP,................ sit down, .......... and look over at where you're at. examine yourself before you make your next move. Go to God and pray about this thing called the trinity. go over what's been said. make an intelligence choice in the Lord JESUS, and you will be glad.

PICJAG
 
D

Dave L

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to all trinitarians out there following this post. in response to post #277 above, you painted yourself into a corner, which you should have not.

but you insist on using Malachi 3:6 in ERROR. I tried to tell you, "Follow the bible and you want go wrong". Post #277 destroy your notion that God change not, (IN THAT LIGHT, that you reason). and that wisdom of men now have you in a box. because our Lord transfigured before them. if you go with the bible you want go wrong.

Now, I have the answer to the scripture in Malachi 3:6, but since you insist on going down that road.... go ahead.

PICJAG.
The Jews had a thumbnail sketch of God in the OT. But the NT gives the details. Oneness tries to make the details fit the thumbnail sketch and miss the details altogether.

““Now concerning that day and hour no one knows—neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son —except the Father only.” (Matthew 24:36) (HCSB)

“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” (John 1:18) (KJV 1900)

How can this be if the the Father becomes the Son as modalism (Oneness) says?
 
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Waiting on him

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GINOLJC, to all.

while we are waiting for apak responses,

To all of my trinitarians friends out there in the wilderness who say God changes NOT, (which is true), but you has applied it fasley. matthews chapter 17 disprove your theory as in ERROR, as to nature, and likewise in Genesis chapter 6 to mental awareness of one's mind, hence repentance. what you did was misapplied the statement in Malachi to mean something else, hence you're now stuck in a box, and cain't get out.

solution, two choices. admit that you're wrong and seek the truth, or allow the devil to continue to use you in his lie in order to try in get you out of his box that he has bound you in. only one problem with the latter. one must tell another lie to cover the last one and then it just snowballs until the next box.

it's one thing true about a lie. it's always running. it's running for it's life because it knows it don't have long to live. so don't let the divel use you for his lie. it's not yours to carry.

I suggest you STOP,................ sit down, .......... and look over at where you're at. examine yourself before you make your next move. Go to God and pray about this thing called the trinity. go over what's been said. make an intelligence choice in the Lord JESUS, and you will be glad.

PICJAG
Intelligence choice?
 

101G

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The Jews had a thumbnail sketch of God in the OT. But the NT gives the details. Oneness tries to make the details fit the thumbnail sketch and miss the details altogether.

““Now concerning that day and hour no one knows—neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son —except the Father only.” (Matthew 24:36) (HCSB)

“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” (John 1:18) (KJV 1900)

How can this be if the the Father becomes the Son as modalism (Oneness) says?
First thanks for the reply, second, "The Jews had a thumbnail sketch of God?". Exodus 20:4 "Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth". THOSE WAS THE JEWS, not you and I.
““Now concerning that day and hour no one knows—neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son —except the Father only.” (Matthew 24:36) (HCSB)
dave you didn't read my post #119? did you?.
“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” (John 1:18) (KJV 1900)
see John 14:5-11.
How can this be if the the Father becomes the Son as modalism (Oneness) says?
dave you're trying to get ahead of yourself and me here, I was trying to save this for the end... but, (smile). I see you're seeking to learn, so I am obligated as a child of the KING to respond.

ok you want to know. ERROR on the oneness of the UPC part as they teach oneness. diversified oneness is true, here's your answer, without going into full detail,
1 Corinthians 15:27 "For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith, all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all".

now I'm going to give you the short verson without details,

you know that "diversified oneness" teach a numerical difference right, based on the Offspring, which identifies the two of the same by sharing, the "Son", and the "Father". now 1 Corinthians 15:27 states the "son" is to (be subject) to him (the Father) right. now the question, "how can the son be subject to the Father if he's co-equal with the Father?". notice what 1 Corinthians 15:27 also states, "that God may be all in all". did you not say Jesus is the fullness of the Godhead bodily, (col 2:9). well the question is how can the Son and the Father be one if they are two separate and distict persons, (that's the trinity problem). but diversified oneness answeres correctly. the Father and the Son are a numerical difference according to G243 allos, (one in flesh and the other is not, while on earth). so how can two be ONE?. answer, since diversified oneness affirms the numerical difference of two or more (of the SAME Sort), this is called DIFFERENTIATION. and since diversified oneness affirms that the Son is the "SHARE" of the Father in flesh, so how are they "all in all" as 1 Corinthians 15:27 states? answer, what is the OPPOSITE of DIFFERENTIATION?, since the process of “ANOTHER PRESENT”?, answer, "ASSIMILATION". the definition of "ASSIMILATION" is to take in, or to incorporate as one's own, just as 1 Corinthians 15:27 states "God maybe all in all". question, is not the Lord JESUS God’s “own” ARM? yes. go back to the definition of "SUBJECT", G5293 ὑποτάσσω hupotasso (hoop-ot-as'-so), the verb "be" in front of subject modifies the word which means "WITHIN". and within is just what 1 Corinthians 15:27 states "God maybe all in all", which confirms the scripture Colossians 2:9 "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily".

see how easy it is to explain diversified oneness? especially when you know it, and have the right teacher, (the Holy Ghost). we can apply this Doctrine from Genesis to Revelation and will not contridict any scripture. this was the short version without details. but if you have any question, just ask.

see dave, this is why, and HOW I know that the person in John 1:3 is the same PERSON in Isaiah 44:24.

PICJAG
 
D

Dave L

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First thanks for the reply, second, "The Jews had a thumbnail sketch of God?". Exodus 20:4 "Thou shalt not make unto thee any graven image, or any likeness of any thing that is in heaven above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth". THOSE WAS THE JEWS, not you and I.

dave you didn't read my post #119? did you?.

see John 14:5-11.

dave you're trying to get ahead of yourself and me here, I was trying to save this for the end... but, (smile). I see you're seeking to learn, so I am obligated as a child of the KING to respond.

ok you want to know. ERROR on the oneness of the UPC part as they teach oneness. diversified oneness is true, here's your answer, without going into full detail,
1 Corinthians 15:27 "For he hath put all things under his feet. But when he saith, all things are put under him, it is manifest that he is excepted, which did put all things under him. 28 And when all things shall be subdued unto him, then shall the Son also himself be subject unto him that put all things under him, that God may be all in all".

now I'm going to give you the short verson without details,

you know that "diversified oneness" teach a numerical difference right, based on the Offspring, which identifies the two of the same by sharing, the "Son", and the "Father". now 1 Corinthians 15:27 states the "son" is to (be subject) to him (the Father) right. now the question, "how can the son be subject to the Father if he's co-equal with the Father?". notice what 1 Corinthians 15:27 also states, "that God may be all in all". did you not say Jesus is the fullness of the Godhead bodily, (col 2:9). well the question is how can the Son and the Father be one if they are two separate and distict persons, (that's the trinity problem). but diversified oneness answeres correctly. the Father and the Son are a numerical difference according to G243 allos, (one in flesh and the other is not, while on earth). so how can two be ONE?. answer, since diversified oneness affirms the numerical difference of two or more (of the SAME Sort), this is called DIFFERENTIATION. and since diversified oneness affirms that the Son is the "SHARE" of the Father in flesh, so how are they "all in all" as 1 Corinthians 15:27 states? answer, what is the OPPOSITE of DIFFERENTIATION?, since the process of “ANOTHER PRESENT”?, answer, "ASSIMILATION". the definition of "ASSIMILATION" is to take in, or to incorporate as one's own, just as 1 Corinthians 15:27 states "God maybe all in all". question, is not the Lord JESUS God’s “own” ARM? yes. go back to the definition of "SUBJECT", G5293 ὑποτάσσω hupotasso (hoop-ot-as'-so), the verb "be" in front of subject modifies the word which means "WITHIN". and within is just what 1 Corinthians 15:27 states "God maybe all in all", which confirms the scripture Colossians 2:9 "For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily".

see how easy it is to explain diversified oneness? especially when you know it, and have the right teacher, (the Holy Ghost). we can apply this Doctrine from Genesis to Revelation and will not contridict any scripture. this was the short version without details. but if you have any question, just ask.

see dave, this is why, and HOW I know that the person in John 1:3 is the same PERSON in Isaiah 44:24.

PICJAG
You dance around the issues quite well. But you cannot refute the plain statements of scripture. "If you cannot explain something simply, you do not understand it to begin with." (Einstein).

““Now concerning that day and hour no one knows—neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son —except the Father only.” (Matthew 24:36) (HCSB)

“No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.” (John 1:18) (KJV 1900)

How can this be if the the Father becomes the Son as modalism (Oneness) says? No song and dance, just explain what it means.
 

101G

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You dance around the issues quite well. But you cannot refute the plain statements of scripture. "If you cannot explain something simply, you do not understand it to begin with." (Einstein).
well just reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24 Einstein....
““Now concerning that day and hour no one knows—neither the angels in heaven, nor the Son —except the Father only.” (Matthew 24:36) (HCSB)
again read Post #119 Einstein
How can this be if the the Father becomes the Son as modalism (Oneness) says? No song and dance, just explain what it means.
again read post #286

But just reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24 Einstein, you try to dance around that.

it's been two days and you haven't answered the question...

you might want to wait on apak also..... :D

PICJAG.
 
D

Dave L

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well just reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24 Einstein....

again read Post #119 Einstein

again read post #286

But just reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24 Einstein, you try to dance arounf that.

it's been two days and you haven't answered the question...

you might want to wait on apak also..... :D

PICJAG.
If you consider God is One Spirit with three persons, it all makes sense. But you discard much of the NT revelation about God if you try to make God one person only. In fact, you construct an idol and a false Christ.
 
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101G

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If you consider God is One Spirit with three persons, it all makes sense. But you discard much of the NT revelation about God if you try to make God one person only. In fact, you construct an idol and a false Christ.
NOPE, no need to consider when the truth is right in the bible.

and no, Diversied Oneness don't make sense, it makes "FAITH"....:D
correction, I don't make anything. that's your problem, you MAKE God into three person when the bible clearly teach that he is ONE PERSON. and that one person is the Holy Spirit.

I know your NATURAL mind see "Father", "Son", and "Holy Spirit". I saw the same thing when I was fooled too. we don't walk by sight, we walk by Faith. you saw and you added. "MAKING" persons out of titles. just like eve "when she SAW that the food was good to eat"... man's wisdom. and that's why you're still in the box and cin't reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24. still cain't

And... to answer your next question, the BIBLE "MAKE" God as the "ANOTHER" of himself, "SHARED" in flesh as the Son, not me, but God almighty himself. take it up with him.

so you need to quit "MAKING" God into an Idol, meaning into something that's he's not. as you said the Jews did... lol, not only the Jews but you to..... :eek:

now, don't get upset with me because you cannot reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24. if you would listen to the Holy Ghost then you would know how to reconcile these scriptures.

PICJAG.
 
D

Dave L

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NOPE, no need to consider when the truth is right in the bible.

and no, Diversied Oneness don't make sense, it makes "FAITH"....:D
correction, I don't make anything. that's your problem, you MAKE God into three person when the bible clearly teach that he is ONE PERSON. and that one person is the Holy Spirit.

I know your NATURAL mind see "Father", "Son", and "Holy Spirit". I saw the same thing when I was fooled too. we don't walk by sight, we walk by Faith. you saw and you added. "MAKING" persons out of titles. just like eve "when she SAW that the food was good to eat"... man's wisdom. and that's why you're still in the box and cin't reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24. still cain't

And... to answer your next question, the BIBLE "MAKE" God as the "ANOTHER" of himself, "SHARED" in flesh as the Son, not me, but God almighty himself. take it up with him.

so you need to quit "MAKING" God into an Idol, meaning into something that's he's not. as you said the Jews did... lol, not only the Jews but you to..... :eek:

now, don't get upset with me because you cannot reconcicle John 1:3 and Isaiah 44:24. if you would listen to the Holy Ghost then you would know how to reconcile these scriptures.

PICJAG.
You are confusing the Holy Spirit with God being Spirit. In the One Spirit called God are three persons, each distinct from each other all simultaneously present eternally. The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
 

Deborah_

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I think the author is no linguist.

"Yet another instance of the significance of the aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol is found in the Book of Ruth. Ruth's name is used 12 times in the book. The first 10 times there is no aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol in front of her name. After she is redeemed by Boaz the next two times her name is used, an aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol appears in front of her name each time (Ruth 4:5&13). These are just two examples, but it seems quite obvious that the aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol shows a connection of covenant relationship with YHVH (refer to the last series, One Flesh - Communion)."


Reading the book of Ruth, the true reason is much more prosaic. In the first three chapters, where Ruth is one of the main characters in the action, it so happens that she is never the grammatical object of a sentence - therefore no aleph-tav. In chapter 4, where she is off-scene and Boaz and the narrator are talking about her, she is the object of the sentence on two occasions, in verses 5 & 13 - and therefore has an aleph-tav in front of her name. (And verse 5 is before Boaz has redeemed her, so the 'covenant-relationship' explanation doesn't hold water anyway)

It's grammar, grammar, grammar all the way...
 

101G

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You are confusing the Holy Spirit with God being Spirit. In the One Spirit called God are three persons, each distinct from each other all simultaneously present eternally. The Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
dave don't be a tape recorde just repeating the same old thing over and over.

PICJAG.
 

101G

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I think the author is no linguist.

"Yet another instance of the significance of the aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol is found in the Book of Ruth. Ruth's name is used 12 times in the book. The first 10 times there is no aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol in front of her name. After she is redeemed by Boaz the next two times her name is used, an aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol appears in front of her name each time (Ruth 4:5&13). These are just two examples, but it seems quite obvious that the aleph-tav (
aleph-tav-1.gif
) symbol shows a connection of covenant relationship with YHVH (refer to the last series, One Flesh - Communion)."


Reading the book of Ruth, the true reason is much more prosaic. In the first three chapters, where Ruth is one of the main characters in the action, it so happens that she is never the grammatical object of a sentence - therefore no aleph-tav. In chapter 4, where she is off-scene and Boaz and the narrator are talking about her, she is the object of the sentence on two occasions, in verses 5 & 13 - and therefore has an aleph-tav in front of her name. (And verse 5 is before Boaz has redeemed her, so the 'covenant-relationship' explanation doesn't hold water anyway)

It's grammar, grammar, grammar all the way...
First thanks for the reply, second, this is not the only one who wrote on this topic. this was to get you started . you have a right to your own oponion, but did you get the curst of the aleph and the Tav matter?.

but as to the book of Ruth, it the KINSMAN REDEEMER that is important.

thanks

PICJAG.
 

101G

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Let's have an answer, simply stated if you understand what you are talking about.
LOL, I understand perfetly what I know and has Posted.

see dave the key to diversified oneness vs the trinity is this. "Sharing" vs "Separation"'.

I fully understand what I know and was taught by the Holy Spirit.

Now, is the Person of John 1:3 the same Person of Isaiah 44:24. this will prove if I know what I talking about, or you don't know what you're talking about. answer.

PICJAG.
 
D

Dave L

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LOL, I understand perfetly what I know and has Posted.

see dave the key to diversified oneness vs the trinity is this. "Sharing" vs "Separation"'.

I fully understand what I know and was taught by the Holy Spirit.

Now, is the Person of John 1:3 the same Person of Isaiah 44:24. this will prove if I know what I talking about, or you don't know what you're talking about. answer.

PICJAG.
You do not understand enough about God to ask the right question. So I need to give the best answer I can. That is, God is one divine Spirit with three persons. So if a passage refers to God doing anything, it involves all of God. God as One Spirit with three persons.
 

101G

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You do not understand enough about God to ask the right question. So I need to give the best answer I can. That is, God is one divine Spirit with three persons. So if a passage refers to God doing anything, it involves all of God. God as One Spirit with three persons.
so I can take this as you cannot answer my question.... lol.

full of hot air.

listen dave you need to wait on apak like a few others, ok. because you're embarrassing yourself by not answering the question. so just wait........ :cool:

PICJAG.
 
D

Dave L

Guest
so I can take this as you cannot answer my question.... lol.

full of hot air.

listen dave you need to wait on apak like a few others, ok. because you're embarrassing yourself by not answering the question. so just wait........ :cool:

PICJAG.
Insults only show you are becoming frustrated and cannot defend your position using scripture.