Spiritual Israelite
Well-Known Member
You are blatantly contradicting what Paul said. He should there would be a mass faling away and the revealing of the man of sin FIRST before Jesus comes and we are gathered to Him.No, 2Thessalonians2:3-4 is not teaching the church would go through the great tribulation. But just the opposite.
Paul was reassuring the believers in Thessalonica that the church, the body of believers in Christ, will be raptured from the earth before the Antichrist reveals himself to be the man of sin.
Paul equated the day of the Lord with the second coming of Christ when we are gathered to Him. It's a literal day that will come and then Jesus will return on that day and we will be gathered to Him in the air.The Antichrist, when he commits the transgression of desolation act described in 2Thessalonians2:4, revealing himself as the man of sin, will trigger the beginning of the day of the Lord when God's wrath will be poured out.
In 1Thessalonians5:1-11, Paul taught that believers in Christ will be resurrected/raptured before the day of the Lord begins. The resurrection/rapture is in 1Thessalonians5:9-11.
2 Thessalonians 2:1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters, 2 not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us—whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter—asserting that the day of the Lord has already come. 3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
So, Paul makes it clear at the beginning of this passage that he was going to speak of things "concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him". In verse 2, instead of repeating that long phrase, he refers to "the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him" as "the day of the Lord". Then in verse 3, he again refers to "that day" (the day of the Lord when Jesus comes and we are gathered to Him) and says it will not come until the rebellion (falling away) occurs and the man of lawlessness (man of sin) is revealed first. You try to say that the man of sin is revealed after the rapture, but Paul said it the other way around. Do you also try to say that the falling away occurs after the rapture? Paul clearly said otherwise.
