I'm looking for insight on this topic (not a debate) My family is Methodist and growing up I attended a Methodist church and women as pastors was accepted. Where I am living now, there is a huge church of Christ population (I live in a small town, not many church options) and after attending their church for the last few years this topic is still uncertain in my mind. Where I attend a female can't lead a prayer if there is a male present, nor teach a class if a male is in it. Any role that a woman "has authority" over a male they are not permitted to do.
I would appreciate any insight on these roles. I am not looking to debate the subject, I know it can be sensitive - just looking for some clarity. Thank you.
Ok LC627, I am going to explain this to you in a way that will open your eyes, but I'll need you to pay close attention. I have many gifts, but my strongest is as a teacher of God's word. I count many of those who have responded to you in this thread as friends, so I don't mean to cause any strife by contradicting them, but most have it wrong.
Here is what you need to understand: In every single passage where this topic comes up in the NT, it is not discussing men and women but
husbands and wives. The translators do an incredibly poor job of communicating this to the modern reader because they don't translate the original properly in the passages in question. The reason is because the Greek words for "men" and "women" are just as often translated "husbands" and "wives." You must look to the context to know which is the correct rendering.
Now watch:
1 Corinthians 14:33-35KJV
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
34 Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.
35 And if they will learn any thing,
let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.
These verses are
not about women, they are about
wives. The proper translation should be:
1 Corinthians 14:33-35KJV
33 For God is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.
34 Let your wives keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.
35 And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for wives to speak in the church.
Notice how he says, "but they are commanded to be under obedience
as also saith the law." What law? He is referring to Genesis 3:16, which applies specifically to wives, not women. When you ask for someone to show you where the law states no woman can teach a man, you get dead silence.
Watch again:
Titus 2:3-5KJV
3 The aged women likewise, that they be in behaviour as becometh holiness, not false accusers, not given to much wine, teachers of good things;
4 That they may teach the young women to be sober,
to love their husbands, to love their children,
5 To be discreet, chaste, keepers at home, good,
obedient to their own husbands, that the word of God be not blasphemed.
Again this in not a passage about women. It is a passage about wives.
Proper translation should be:
Titus 2:3-5KJV
3 The aged (widowed or married) women likewise, that they be in behaviour as becometh holiness, not false accusers, not given to much wine, teachers of good things;
4 That they may teach the young
wives to be sober, to love their husbands, to love their children,
5 To be discreet, chaste, keepers at home, good, obedient to their own husbands, that the word of God be not blasphemed.
That
what word of God not be blasphemed? Genesis 3:16.
Watch again:
1 Timothy 2:11-14KJV
11 Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.
13
For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
He was not talking here about women. He was talking about wives, and using the first husband and wife as his example, now relating the entire Genesis story to his argument.
Proper translation should be:
1 Timothy 2:11-14KJV
11 Let the wife learn in silence with all subjection.
12 But I suffer not a wife to teach, nor to usurp authority over her husband, but to be in silence.
13 For Adam was first formed, then Eve.
14 And Adam was not deceived, but his wife being deceived was in the transgression.
Why were wives not allowed to teach their husbands? Because when a man and woman enter into a marriage agreement, they agree to become a reflection of the marriage between Christ and His bride the church, and the bride does not teach Christ
anything. A husband must assume the responsibility to become her teacher in the word as a reflection of Christ to His bride ("husbands love your wives, cleansing them with the washing of the water in the word"), and she must assume the responsibility to hear and obey the word of God coming through him as the bride to Christ ("wives obey your husbands"), which means a man assumes an incredible responsibility spiritually when he marries. He will be held accountable to God for teaching her accurately.
This means that women are in no way inferior as teachers, and there is actually no NT command that forbids a woman from teaching in any capacity. The restriction merely applies to wives teaching their husbands, because inside the marriage relationship this would constitute "usurping authority" over him, and undermine their responsibility to be a reflection of Christ entering into relationship with the church.
Please respond if you read this. Not many understand the issue correctly.
Blessings in Christ,
Hidden In Him.