ok we do understand that there were no witnesses to this supposed "historical event," right
im not really interested in preventing ppl from reading literally if they like, but we have plenty of evidence now, overwhelming evidence, that most of those things we read in the OT likely never literally happened; so i suggest putting away the childish things here, and trying to change the mind completely, and grasping what was meant rather than what was literally written, to hide wisdom from the wise.
One can still believe a literal woman bit an apple from a literal tree if they like, and still contemplate other, more pertinent to us possibilities, imo
But the Bible takes it literally, or the whole Gospel scheme is not literal.
Scripture contrasts the universal effect of Adam, and the universal effect of Christ. Let's consider Romans 5:14,15, and 17-18. "Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression... But not as the offense, so also is the free gift.. . For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and the gift of righteousness... Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life." Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed unto all men. If Christ did not correct something that Adam caused, then did He really accomplish anything in retrospect to Adam? Did Christ undo anything for us racially if Adam did not do anything that affected the entire race?