Luke 1:33 And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever ; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
Luke 19:14 But his citizens hated him, and sent a message after him, saying, We will not have this man to reign over us
Luke 19:27 But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them , bring hither, and slay them before me.
Romans 15:12 And again, Esaias saith, There shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles ; in him shall the Gentiles trust.
Versus....
1 Corinthians 4:8 Now ye are full, now ye are rich, ye have reigned as kings without us: and I would to God ye did reign, that we also might reign with you
2 Timothy 2:12 If we suffer, we shall also reign with him : if we deny him, he also will deny us:
Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years
According to 2 Timothy 2:12---If we suffer, we shall also reign with him---isn't that exactly what the martyrs in Revelation 20:4 did first? Did they not suffer first? The question then is, were they reigning with Christ because they were suffering then? Or because they suffered first, their reward was that they get to reign with Christ at a future time?
One way to get to the bottom of this is rather simple. Use Christ as the example. While He was suffering on this side of life was He also reigning with the Father in this manner---Mark 16:19---and sat on the right hand of God?
Keeping in mind the following.
Revelation 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.
How can----I will grant to sit with me in my throne---not be meaning this---and shall reign with him a thousand years?
How can---and am set down with my Father in his throne---mean that He was already doing that while He was overcoming and before He even fully overcomes first?
How can----I will grant to sit with me in my throne---mean that one is already doing that while one is overcoming and before one even fully overcomes first?
Why did Christ do it one way and that Amils have Amils doing it another way, thus not the same way Christ did it?
The way Christ did it.
He suffered first, then because He suffered He then reigned with the Father in His Father's throne after He had suffered first, thus had fully overcome first.
The way Amils do it.
While one is still suffering, while one is still overcoming, and before one even fully overcomes first, they are already sitting with Him in His throne, thus already reigning with Him for a thousand years.
Let's see if we can twist things to make that work in Christ's case as well.
While Christ is still suffering, while Christ is still overcoming, and before He even fully overcomes first, He is already sitting with His Father in Father's throne, thus already is set down with His Father in His throne.
Clearly, that contradicts the facts involving this. That's not the way it happened and Amils fully know it. Why then are Amils doing these things the exact opposite that Christ did these things? Why are Amils already set down with Christ in Christ's throne, thus reigning with Him a thousand years, before one has fully suffered first and fully overcome first?
And we still have to determine if reigning over and reigning with, whether these are the same thing or not.
Take the following I brought up---But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them(Luke 19:27)---obviously meaning during the era involving His ascension, this being when they would not that He should reign over them. The fact Amils see themselves reigning with Christ a thousand years involving the same era of time His ascension is involving, shouldn't that mean Amils are supposed to be reigning over these same enemies as well, the fact they are reigning with Christ presently?
Luke 19:14 But his citizens hated him, and sent a message after him, saying, We will not have this man to reign over us
Luke 19:27 But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them , bring hither, and slay them before me.
Romans 15:12 And again, Esaias saith, There shall be a root of Jesse, and he that shall rise to reign over the Gentiles ; in him shall the Gentiles trust.
Versus....
1 Corinthians 4:8 Now ye are full, now ye are rich, ye have reigned as kings without us: and I would to God ye did reign, that we also might reign with you
2 Timothy 2:12 If we suffer, we shall also reign with him : if we deny him, he also will deny us:
Revelation 20:4 And I saw thrones, and they sat upon them, and judgment was given unto them: and I saw the souls of them that were beheaded for the witness of Jesus, and for the word of God, and which had not worshipped the beast, neither his image, neither had received his mark upon their foreheads, or in their hands; and they lived and reigned with Christ a thousand years
Revelation 20:6 Blessed and holy is he that hath part in the first resurrection: on such the second death hath no power, but they shall be priests of God and of Christ, and shall reign with him a thousand years
According to 2 Timothy 2:12---If we suffer, we shall also reign with him---isn't that exactly what the martyrs in Revelation 20:4 did first? Did they not suffer first? The question then is, were they reigning with Christ because they were suffering then? Or because they suffered first, their reward was that they get to reign with Christ at a future time?
One way to get to the bottom of this is rather simple. Use Christ as the example. While He was suffering on this side of life was He also reigning with the Father in this manner---Mark 16:19---and sat on the right hand of God?
Keeping in mind the following.
Revelation 3:21 To him that overcometh will I grant to sit with me in my throne, even as I also overcame, and am set down with my Father in his throne.
How can----I will grant to sit with me in my throne---not be meaning this---and shall reign with him a thousand years?
How can---and am set down with my Father in his throne---mean that He was already doing that while He was overcoming and before He even fully overcomes first?
How can----I will grant to sit with me in my throne---mean that one is already doing that while one is overcoming and before one even fully overcomes first?
Why did Christ do it one way and that Amils have Amils doing it another way, thus not the same way Christ did it?
The way Christ did it.
He suffered first, then because He suffered He then reigned with the Father in His Father's throne after He had suffered first, thus had fully overcome first.
The way Amils do it.
While one is still suffering, while one is still overcoming, and before one even fully overcomes first, they are already sitting with Him in His throne, thus already reigning with Him for a thousand years.
Let's see if we can twist things to make that work in Christ's case as well.
While Christ is still suffering, while Christ is still overcoming, and before He even fully overcomes first, He is already sitting with His Father in Father's throne, thus already is set down with His Father in His throne.
Clearly, that contradicts the facts involving this. That's not the way it happened and Amils fully know it. Why then are Amils doing these things the exact opposite that Christ did these things? Why are Amils already set down with Christ in Christ's throne, thus reigning with Him a thousand years, before one has fully suffered first and fully overcome first?
And we still have to determine if reigning over and reigning with, whether these are the same thing or not.
Take the following I brought up---But those mine enemies, which would not that I should reign over them(Luke 19:27)---obviously meaning during the era involving His ascension, this being when they would not that He should reign over them. The fact Amils see themselves reigning with Christ a thousand years involving the same era of time His ascension is involving, shouldn't that mean Amils are supposed to be reigning over these same enemies as well, the fact they are reigning with Christ presently?
