Jon-Marc
New Member
To God, there is no such thing as a righteous unbeliever. They may be righteous in man's eyes but not in God's.
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The law is not against the righteous. It is just that the righteous are unable of themselves to fully accomplish the law because the law is holy. So therefore by deeds of the law shall no man be justified. No man can justify himself by the law since the law is too high a standard for him. By claiming he is justified by the law he condemns himself as unrighteous in his judgment...since the law surpasses his ability to perform it. Only in Christ can we fulfill the WHOLE law including the standard of holiness within it. So our boast is not in ourselves.
The Mosaic law was about holiness not righteousness.
The law of righteousness comes from God Himself by revelation of the Spirit.
For example...circumcision does not make a person more righteous. Righteousness is in the doing what is right in the eyes of God.
Hi Episkopos,
This was the paragraph I quoted.
Your patience is appreciated because I still have questions. <_<
Thanks for the scriptures. They help - up to a point. But they are taken from the era of the law.
What other standard of righteousness was in use during OT times before Abram?
What definition of 'holy' and 'holiness' do you have in mind? (I feel you are filtering every idea through a New Covenant mindset.)
You said:
Is this an OT or a NT standard? It sounds as if it could be either.
And you didn't say whether the 'law of righteousness' was one of the laws you mentioned in the paragraph I had quoted. Please could you clarify?
So, are you saying that by them keeping the commandment of God to be circumcised, it added nothing to their 'righteousness'?
Would that mean - according to this reasoning - that they would have been just as righteous if they had not obeyed God, (and had not bothered to be circumcised)?
If God is willing to forgive a Christian who sins in the new nature why is it so hard to understand that He can forgive those who have been given far less to work with?
Because God dealeth with us as "sons".
Axehead
Hi Episkopos,
Your ordeal with my questions is not yet over!
Right at the beginning of the thread you talked about (my paraphrase) people who will be saved for doing the right thing - whether Israelites or Gentiles - whether before or after the law. Now, I'm trying to get you to write down the terms by which any of these four groups of people would be declared 'righteous' by God to the extent of their actions saving them from God's wrath and eternal destruction.
So far, you have offered a hail of conflicting information from a mixture of scripture and your own opinions. I say your own opinions, because it's not clear to me that they have a rigorous scriptural basis. What I'm looking for is the kind of study which shows those reading how to form definitons from scripture. Here's an example. The word 'repent' in scripture is first used of whom? What were the qualities of that 'repentance'. What was the outworking of that repentance? What can we deduce from what scripture tells us about this first 'repentance', are the generic qualities and outworkings of repentance? As we read on through scripture, do we find these qualities and outworkings repeated in other parts of the narrative? By those recurrences of 'repent' and 'repentance', is the revelation being increased of the definition of true repentance as God wants to see it? How do we relate this understanding of repentance to our own lives and relationship with God?
Okay. Let's do the same with righteousness. Who is the first person scripture describes as 'righteous'? (Not 'just', not 'pleasing to God', not 'walking with God' - not some other adjective or verb, but 'righteous'.) What other factors are at play in scripture's use of the term 'righteous'? Is the word used by God or by men (of God or of men) or both, and do they always mean the same thing by it? If not, what are the key differences? Which scriptures inform our definitions of these differing perspectives on righteousness? Does scripture show an increasing revelation of 'righteousness', or, is it a static term which does not change throughout scripture?
Since you have compared 'righteousness' and 'holiness' in a confusing way, the same questions need to be asked about holiness, to develop a distinct definition of 'holiness' which shows how it differs from righteousness, and which clarify the overlap and separation. For instance, clearly - according to Jesus - there were priests (holy by one definition of holiness) who were keeping the Mosaic law 'blameless'ly. But you have said that no-one could keep the Mosaic law because it was not possible to keep it because 'the law is holy'. I'm not saying your statement is incorrect, but, because you have not separated the issues and the perspectives in writing in this thread, such a statement is at best, confusing, and at worst, meaningless to anyone who doesn't have a Bible or, who doesn't understand what the Bible is showing them.
The main reason the answers to these questions matter enormously, is that you are hanging eternal salvation on the term 'righteous' - for some people - especially in the post-Calvary era - who are not Christians.
As I read the conversation so far, I still have no idea which biblical parameters, on which a person could be absolutely sure that they have complied with God's requirements, will save them from God's wrath at judgment according to your gospel. Matt 7:21, 24; 1 Peter 1:25. And even if there were not people reading in over 200 countries around the world - just for the purposes of this discussion between ourselves, I would be trying to extract precise information from you for the sake of answering the original questions in the OP.
I hope this post helps you to understand better, what I'm both trying to achieve, and, to understand for myself.
Blessings, brother :)
Dear Episkopos,
Thank you for your efforts to give me some more clues as to where you get some of your ideas about righteousness. I don't feel any further forward as to a biblical definition, so, I wil l ask you one last question.
When you speak of Gentiles (and especially in the era since the cross) unbelievers being saved through their righteous deeds, my question is this - are you saying they don't need to have their unrighteousess deeds forgiven before they are accepted by God?
If they do need forgiveness, how do they get it? (Please answer this question for Gentiles in the era before Abraham, too.)
Many thanks, :)
He can forgive anyone He wishes and count as righteous anyone He wishes ...
HI Episkopos,
Now this last answer is beginning to touch some of my questions.
The way you've worded this makes God sound like an arbitrary judge, rather than one who not only has rules but keeps His own rules.
So... on what basis would He be able to forgive a person because 'he wishes' to?
Salvation is by God's grace through our faith. According to each man's faith will what God does with His graced be measured to Him. We believe that the gospel is life changing and produces righteousness through the blood of Jesus. If your life is not changed unto righteousness by the gospel you may not be saved. Many receive a religious experience and have some scriptures under their belt and are not saved. But for those that understand that God's highest command is for His people to obey and live holy and changed by the power of the gospel of Jesus Christ to those is given salvation and the full measure of grace. Not humanistic perfection or legalistic self righteousness but godliness given by God through faith. And your works being a product of your faith for what is in you will come out of you! If your truly saved in your soul your works will confirm your profession. Bitter and sweet can not come out of the same foutain! Righteousness and sin can not dwell together! God is holy, Jesus is holy, the Holy Spirit is holy and the Holy writ is holy and we are commanded to live and be holy!
"[background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]because it is written, "YOU SHALL BE HOLY, FOR I AM HOLY." (1 Peter 1:16)[/background]
[background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]"[/background][background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]And a highway will be there; it will be called the Way of Holiness. The unclean will not journey on it; it will be for those who walk in that Way; wicked fools will not go about on it." (Isaiah 35:8)[/background]
[background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]"[/background][background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]And Joshua said unto the people, Sanctify yourselves: for tomorrow the LORD will do wonders among you." (Joshua 3:5)[/background]
[background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]"[/background][background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]"Not everyone who says to me, 'Lord, Lord,' will enter the kingdom of heaven, but only he who does the will of my Father who is in heaven." (Matthew 7:21)[/background]
[background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]"[/background][background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]Why do you call me, 'Lord, Lord,' and do not do what I say?" (Luke 6:46)[/background]
[background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]"For it is not those who hear the law who are righteous in God's sight, but it is those who obey the law who will be declared righteous." (Romans 2:13)[/background]
[background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]"[/background][background=rgb(249, 253, 255)]Blessed are those who hunger and thirst for righteousness, for they will be filled." (Matthew 5:6)[/background]
So in Mat. 25 we see the second judgment AFTER the millenial rule of Christ (with the saints). The criteria is NOT whether they believed the gospel....but on how they treated others (especially the saints).
It seems I keep going backwards with this issue, instead of forward, but I need a clearer understanding of this. Unbelievers remain under the law of sin and death, correct? If they do not have Christ, they remain under law and will be judged by the law. When James and Paul speak of this, it seems they are ONLY referring to these types of people, not someone who once was enlightened and then fell away, these have never been regenerated, Paul tells us that at least some of the Gentiles have the law written on their hearts, so these would be judged under the law. The law was given to these. If they stumble in even one part of the law, they have become lawbreakers and will be judged as such, regardless of how many righteous acts they do.
Hi Episkopos,
I'm re-reading the whole thread, to see whether an overview will help me tune in to your thinking. This post is about just one line, but I've kept the preceding line (your whole paragraph) for context. It's from post # 8.
Are you really saying that despite Christ's millennial reign, there will still be unbelievers who did the 'right' thing, who are saved?
Assuming the answer to this is 'yes', which Bible verses do you use to back up this idea? (Apart from Matt 25, of course.)
Hi Johnny,
This is part of your response at post # 11, which I wanted to answer, but somehow I think I failed!
All that I wish to point out is that Paul and James were Israelites and they were speaking to Israelites whenever they mentioned 'the law' being applicable. Those who will be judged without 'the law', are Gentiles - who were never under 'the law'.
When Paul says to Timothy that 'the law is for the lawless' he is speaking in the era after the Mosaic law was fulfilled by Christ. It is no longer the standard.
1Pe_4:18 And if the righteous scarcely be saved, where shall the ungodly and the sinner appear?
Hi Episkopos,
I will bear your latest comments in mind as I read and consider. :) Thanks.
I think this verse needs to be taken along with the one before it, because it reads just like the Hebrew device for emphasis, where everything is said twice, If that were the case, Peter is contrasting those who have the righteousness of Christ, with those who do not have it.
1 Pet 4:17 For the time [is come] that judgment must begin at the house of God:
and if [it] first [begin] at us, what shall the end [be] of them that obey not the gospel of God?On what grounds can we say for sure that Peter is not referring to those who have the righteousness of Christ?
The thief on the cross was not baptized either in water or the Spirit.
Hi D!!Hi Episkopos,
Thanks for your replies. I'm slowly building up a picture of how you sort these things out in your mind. It's not the traditional way, you know.... :)
So, if I'm understanding you, you are saying that although he met Christ, and consciously placed his faith in Christ's power to 'save' him from condemnation and wrath, because he could not have been born again or baptised in the Holy Spirit, 'he is scarcely saved'. This would be the same kind of salvation you believe applies to Enoch, Noah, Abraham, Moses, and all the OT prophets. You would not consider these to be 'OT saints'.... but you would consider them 'righteous'. And they are only 'scarcely saved'. :huh:
Please confirm this logical extrapolation.
The more I study this topic, the more I see how the traditional western stance easily sends people to hell. It's almost like belonging to a country club, if I belong than I am safe and those not in the club will perish.
David said he would rather fall into the hands of God than the hands of men.
God will give some more and others less, we are only responsible for what He has given us.
This is not directed to anyone, it is what I see as I study righteousness and compare it to my prior belief.
Maybe a renewing of my mind in a sense. :)