Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
My faulty mind no longer rules me. I now have the mind of Christ.
“…we have the mind of Christ.” (1 Corinthians 2:16)
Go get it, it’s free for the taking.
Just have faith!
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My faulty mind no longer rules me. I now have the mind of Christ.
“…we have the mind of Christ.” (1 Corinthians 2:16)
Go get it, it’s free for the taking.
Just have faith!
Jim B
Well-Known Member
"perfect": without fault
"excellent" extremely good
they are not synonyms. Perfect is faultless, excellent is not.
Jim B
Well-Known Member
It's too bad that you can't accept the truth. I never said that the KJV is the only translation filled with additions and errors. There is no such thing as a perfect translation. Many of them are excellent, none of them are perfect. (See my previous post.)
Jim B
Well-Known Member
You are are clearly delusional! Your faulty mind does rule you. It's obvious from your posts.
I have faith. Unlike yourself, however, I don't claim to be infallible.
Notice that Paul wrote "we have the mind of Christ" (plural). The great apostle who wrote much of the New Testament, didn't say I have the mind of Christ. So for you to say "I now have the mind of Christ" makes you better than the great apostle!
Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
“…and I think also that I have the Spirit of God.” (1 Corinthians 7:40)
Which translates to “we” as believers. We have the Spirit of Christ. I have it too!
I have the mind of Christ because Paul said “we” as believers have it.
Jim B
Well-Known Member
Why can't you accept that the KJV is just a translation? It is not the pure word of God. Why do you insist that a re-translation of earlier translations, ordered by a secular king to codify his version of Christianity, is not without error?
In order for any translation to be perfect, a) it must be based on perfect sources (even though there are none) and b) it must translate the original languages into English (even though there is no exact equivalent of vocabulary, verb tenses, idioms, etc.) In fact, when the New Testament quotes OT Scripture it is sometimes different than what the OT actually says. Why? Because the Old Testament is a direct translation of the Hebrew; the New Testament is a translation of the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Bible).
For example...
Mark 7:6-8, KJV "He [Jesus] answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me."
Isaiah 29:13, KJV "with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me"
Did Jesus not know the Bible? Was He misquoting the word of God?
According to your (confused) thinking, that must be the case! However, this is just one example of the Bible's meaning being what is important, even though the exact words in the OT and NT are different.
"Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men."
So your concept of the KJV being the exact word of God is based on ignorance. Even the OT and NT disagree with each other!
In order for any translation to be perfect, a) it must be based on perfect sources (even though there are none) and b) it must translate the original languages into English (even though there is no exact equivalent of vocabulary, verb tenses, idioms, etc.) In fact, when the New Testament quotes OT Scripture it is sometimes different than what the OT actually says. Why? Because the Old Testament is a direct translation of the Hebrew; the New Testament is a translation of the Septuagint (the Greek translation of the Bible).
For example...
Mark 7:6-8, KJV "He [Jesus] answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me."
Isaiah 29:13, KJV "with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me"
Did Jesus not know the Bible? Was He misquoting the word of God?
According to your (confused) thinking, that must be the case! However, this is just one example of the Bible's meaning being what is important, even though the exact words in the OT and NT are different.
"Howbeit in vain do they worship me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men."
So your concept of the KJV being the exact word of God is based on ignorance. Even the OT and NT disagree with each other!
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Jim B
Well-Known Member
So now "we" (plural) and "I" (singular) are the same?
Do you know what "and I think also that I have the Spirit of God" means? It means that Paul, writing in the first person, said that he (singular) had the Spirit of God. He didn't say that “we” as believers have it. That is a clear and obvious distortion of God's word (no matter what translation you use).
Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
No. It’s based on spiritual discernment.
“But he that is spiritual judgeth all things” (1 Corinthians 2:15)
I therefore, as a spiritually minded believer, judge that the King James Bible is still the King of all translations since it’s release!
And don’t deny that I am spiritual:
“…ye which are spiritual… (Galatians 6:1)
God can preserve his word. Nothing is to hard for him you know…
“Behold, I am the LORD, the God of all flesh: is there any thing too hard for me?” (Jeremiah 32:27)
@Jim B seems to think so…
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Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
Come now, are you just messing with me?
“We” believers do have the Spirit of Christ/God:
“But ye are not in the flesh, but in the Spirit, if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. Now if any man have not the Spirit of Christ, he is none of his. And if Christ be in you, the body is dead because of sin; but the Spirit is life because of righteousness.” (Romans 8:9-10)
Jim B
Well-Known Member
Oh, I see: "spiritual discernment". Are you actually claiming that spiritual discernment belongs to you alone???
I therefore, as a spiritually minded believer, judge that the King James Bible is not the “King” of all translations; it is just one of many translations and clearly not the best.
And don’t deny that I am spiritual!
Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
Read my post without assuming things.
All believers who are born again of incorruptible seed have spiritual discernment. You don’t seem to have it because of the faulty modern Bible(s) you been feeding on.
Get the pure milk of the word perfectly preserved in the King James Bible!
“Being born again, not of corruptible seed, but of incorruptible...” (1 Peter 1:23)
Jim B
Well-Known Member
You misquoted Paul; that is all that I am saying.
It is true that “We” believers do have the Spirit of Christ/God -- corporately. No single person has a perfect understanding and/or knowledge of the mind of Christ. 1 Corinthians 2:16, "For who has known the mind of the Lord, so as to advise him? But we [plural] have the mind of Christ."
Jim B
Well-Known Member
Are you joking or just plain delusional?
You obviously don't have it because of the faulty King James Bible you have been feeding on. Modern translations are, almost without exception, far better than the antiquated politically-motivated translation known as the King James Bible.
My advice: you should definitely get the "pure milk" of the accurately translated word of God in any number of modern translations. I recommend the NET, the NIV, the NRSV, the NASB, and the ESV as among the best. They are excellent translations written in clear, understandable English, based on the best set of source documents and are the epitome of the art/science of Bible translation.
The King James "had its day" but that day is long gone. "The train has left the station" my friend; don't be left standing on the platform!
Jim B
Well-Known Member
Second reply...
Your statement "All believers who are born again of incorruptible seed have spiritual discernment" is followed by the contradictory statement "You don’t seem to have it because of the faulty modern Bible(s) you been feeding on". So which is it?
Either a) all believers who are born again of incorruptible seed have spiritual discernment or b) they don’t seem to have it because of the faulty modern Bible(s) been feeding on. One can only conclude that, even though I am born again, I don't (according to your faulty reasoning) have spiritual discernment b) or I do have it (without regard to which Bible I use).
Where in Scripture is this preposterous nonsense stated?
Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
The spiritual train of believers does indeed appear to have left this station in life with little to no one left to replace them.
Reading the Bible is eating spiritual food. The King James Bible is rich in nutrients and flavor; a complete, full course, spiritual meal.
The modern Bibles are bland processed food with high levels of harmful ingredients missing some vital courses.
Spiritual health is declining rapidly in the body of Christ.
“Man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of God.” (Matthew 4:4)
Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
Jim B
Well-Known Member
Michiah-Imla, I refer you again to my post #707.
Did Jesus misquote the Bible? He said one thing -- Mark 7:6-8, KJV "He [Jesus] answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me."
But the OT says: Isaiah 29:13, KJV "with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me"
All any rational person can conclude is that the Bible must be understood. Going by (in)exact quotes is poor exegesis, a.k.a., eisegesis.
Your repetitious claim that the KJV is the pure word of God is false. The above is a clear contradiction between two "quotes" from Isaiah. Which one is the "correct", pure word of God?
Did Jesus misquote the Bible? He said one thing -- Mark 7:6-8, KJV "He [Jesus] answered and said unto them, Well hath Esaias prophesied of you hypocrites, as it is written, This people honoureth me with their lips, but their heart is far from me."
But the OT says: Isaiah 29:13, KJV "with their lips do honour me, but have removed their heart far from me"
All any rational person can conclude is that the Bible must be understood. Going by (in)exact quotes is poor exegesis, a.k.a., eisegesis.
Your repetitious claim that the KJV is the pure word of God is false. The above is a clear contradiction between two "quotes" from Isaiah. Which one is the "correct", pure word of God?
Michiah-Imla
Well-Known Member
A variation in wording teaching the same principle doctrine is much different from deleting and altering words that do change principle doctrines (the modern Bibles are guilty of the latter).
Jim B
Well-Known Member
Nonsense! Jesus quoted from the Septuagint, the Koine Greek Bible in use at the time, whereas the Hebrew Bible had different wording. So the principle is clear: the wording doesn't mean that one translation is wrong and the other isn't. Yet that is the opposite of your unfounded claim that the KJV is the word of God. Jesus was quoting from a "modern" translation! I have no doubt that you would have been among the Pharisees who would have "corrected" Him.
There is no basis for your statement that modern Bibles change "principle doctrines" by having different wording than the KJV. In fact, the KJV changed the wording of the Vulgate, Wycliffe, Coverdale, Tyndale and Geneva Bibles and others to fit his personal concept of glorifying a secular king. And people like you still fall for this obvious propaganda distortion. Amazing!
=>Can you give any specific examples of modern Bibles changing the source documents? <=
There are definitely examples of the KJV changing the sources. Have a look at the added words of Romans 8:1 and the entire 16th chapter of Mark. Both of these are clear additions! They are not found in the earliest and best sources. And there are others...
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