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Illuminator

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Of course it is. These are not people still here, with us, are they? They've died, passed, you know. And you want to speak to them. And because you doubt your own relationship with God. I suggest that in Christ we commune with God and you have no need of some other intercessor, Christ is our only Mediator, our only intercessor.

Much love!
Have you ever talked to anyone who exclaimed: “The Bible never shows anyone praying to anyone other than God! And we can never communicate to anyone who is dead, either; that’s occultic!”

Yet it’s indisputable that Jesus indeed plainly teaches the very thing that they claim is nonexistent in Scripture. In His story of Lazarus and the rich man (Luke 16:19-31), we find our compelling prooftext:

Luke 16:24 (RSV) And he called out, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy upon me, and send Laz’arus to dip the end of his finger in water and cool my tongue; for I am in anguish in this flame.’

This is the Abraham of the Bible — long dead by that time –, being asked to do something by a “rich man” (16:19, 22), traditionally known as Dives (which is simply a Latin word for “rich man”). His answer was, in effect, “no” (16:25-26). Having failed in that request, Dives prays to him again for something else:
Luke 16:27-28 And he said, ‘Then I beg you, father [KJV: “I pray thee therefore, father”], to send him to my father’s house, [28] for I have five brothers, so that he may warn them, lest they also come into this place of torment.’

His request is again declined (16:29). He argues with Abraham (16:30), but Abraham reiterates that what he asks is futile (16:31). All of this reveals to us that not only can dead saints hear our requests; they also have some measure of power to carry them out on their own (though no doubt by God’s power). Abraham is asked to “send” a dead man to appear to the rich man’s brothers, in order for them to avoid damnation.

Abraham doesn’t deny that he is able to potentially send Lazarus to do such a thing; he only denies that it would work (by the logic of “if they don’t respond to greater factor x, nor will they respond to lesser factor y”). Therefore, it is assumed in the story that Abraham had the ability and authority to do so on his own. And this is all taught, remember, by our Lord Jesus.

The fact that Dives is dead (in the story they are both in Hades or Sheol: the intermediate netherworld) is irrelevant to the argument at hand, since standard Protestant theology holds that no one should make such a request to anyone but God. He’s asking Abraham to send Lazarus to him, and then to his brothers, so that they can avoid his own fate.

That is very much a prayer: asking for supernatural aid from those who have left the earthly life and attained a greater perfection. Also, rather strikingly (and disturbingly for Protestant theology), God is never mentioned in the entire story of Lazarus and the rich man. It’s all about Dives asking / praying to Abraham for two different requests.

Protestant theology also generally teaches that we can’t talk to anyone who is dead, let alone make intercessory requests to them. Yet King Saul talked to the dead prophet Samuel (1 Sam 28:12-15), Moses and Elijah appeared at the Mount of Transfiguration (Mt 17:1-3), the “Two Witnesses” of Revelation (11:3-13) came back to life again (and talked to folks); so did those who rose after Jesus’ Resurrection (Mt 27:50-53), etc.

read more here
 

Brakelite

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Have you ever talked to anyone who exclaimed: “The Bible never shows anyone praying to anyone other than God! And we can never communicate to anyone who is dead, either; that’s occultic!”

Yet it’s indisputable that Jesus indeed plainly teaches the very thing that they claim is nonexistent in Scripture. In His story of Lazarus and the rich man (Luke 16:19-31), we find our compelling prooftext:

Luke 16:24 (RSV) And he called out, ‘Father Abraham, have mercy upon me, and send Laz’arus to dip the end of his finger in water and cool my tongue; for I am in anguish in this flame.’

This is the Abraham of the Bible — long dead by that time –, being asked to do something by a “rich man” (16:19, 22), traditionally known as Dives (which is simply a Latin word for “rich man”). His answer was, in effect, “no” (16:25-26). Having failed in that request, Dives prays to him again for something else:
Luke 16:27-28 And he said, ‘Then I beg you, father [KJV: “I pray thee therefore, father”], to send him to my father’s house, [28] for I have five brothers, so that he may warn them, lest they also come into this place of torment.’

His request is again declined (16:29). He argues with Abraham (16:30), but Abraham reiterates that what he asks is futile (16:31). All of this reveals to us that not only can dead saints hear our requests; they also have some measure of power to carry them out on their own (though no doubt by God’s power). Abraham is asked to “send” a dead man to appear to the rich man’s brothers, in order for them to avoid damnation.

Abraham doesn’t deny that he is able to potentially send Lazarus to do such a thing; he only denies that it would work (by the logic of “if they don’t respond to greater factor x, nor will they respond to lesser factor y”). Therefore, it is assumed in the story that Abraham had the ability and authority to do so on his own. And this is all taught, remember, by our Lord Jesus.

The fact that Dives is dead (in the story they are both in Hades or Sheol: the intermediate netherworld) is irrelevant to the argument at hand, since standard Protestant theology holds that no one should make such a request to anyone but God. He’s asking Abraham to send Lazarus to him, and then to his brothers, so that they can avoid his own fate.

That is very much a prayer: asking for supernatural aid from those who have left the earthly life and attained a greater perfection. Also, rather strikingly (and disturbingly for Protestant theology), God is never mentioned in the entire story of Lazarus and the rich man. It’s all about Dives asking / praying to Abraham for two different requests.

Protestant theology also generally teaches that we can’t talk to anyone who is dead, let alone make intercessory requests to them. Yet King Saul talked to the dead prophet Samuel (1 Sam 28:12-15), Moses and Elijah appeared at the Mount of Transfiguration (Mt 17:1-3), the “Two Witnesses” of Revelation (11:3-13) came back to life again (and talked to folks); so did those who rose after Jesus’ Resurrection (Mt 27:50-53), etc.

read more here
So Lazarus has a finger? Where did he get that from? The rich man has a tongue? A voice? Abraham in glory can see people suffering in hell? I'm sure that's fun.
As for those others, they weren't dead. They were either resurrected, or in Elijah's case, translated, but all very much alive. Not dead. As for Samuel, God had already refused point blank to talk to Saul, and you think a witch had such influence she can raise a prophet of God from the dead in spite of God's will? In order to defend the indefensible, you are clutching in desperation to superstition and parables, neither of which support genuine Christian doctrine. Oh wait, but the devil agrees with you at least, so well done on that score...
"Ye shall not surely die"... Genesis 3:4
 

Illuminator

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Of course it is. These are not people still here, with us, are they? They've died, passed, you know. And you want to speak to them. And because you doubt your own relationship with God. I suggest that in Christ we commune with God and you have no need of some other intercessor, Christ is our only Mediator, our only intercessor.

Much love!
Often there is confusion over Catholics’ use of the phrase, “praying to saints.” Protestants typically think that we can’t communicate to anyone who is not alive on this earth, and that to do so is tantamount to “praying” to them, and that this is wrong, because [so they claim] one can only pray to God.

They’re wrong. We can ask them to pray for us (which is what Catholics who know anything about their faith mean by “praying to saints”), and that is not prayer, if by prayer we mean (as Protestants believe) only that they grant our requests under their own power. No they don’t. They make powerful requests to God, Who then decides whether to grant our requests or not. They are intercessors to God, not the granters of the prayers.

That said, Catholics often use the phrase “pray[ing] to saints”: meaning “asking them to intercede.” St. Thomas Aquinas makes a very useful clarification:

Prayer is offered to a person in two ways: first, as to be fulfilled by him, secondly, as to be obtained through him. On the first way we offer prayer to God alone, since all our prayers ought to be directed to the acquisition of grace and glory, which God alone gives, according to Psalm 83:12, “The Lord will give grace and glory.” But in the second way we pray to the saints, whether angels or men, not that God may through them know our petitions, but that our prayers may be effective through their prayers and merits.” (Summa Theologica, Second Part of the Second Part, Question 83:4: “Should We Pray to God Alone?”)​
 

Michiah-Imla

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there is confusion over Catholics’ use of the phrase, “praying to saints.”

They make powerful requests to God, Who then decides whether to grant our requests or not.

Unbiblical.

The Bible says:

“…Whatsoever ye shall ask the Father in my name, he will give it you.” (John 16:23)
 
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Brakelite

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Often there is confusion over Catholics’ use of the phrase, “praying to saints.” Protestants typically think that we can’t communicate to anyone who is not alive on this earth, and that to do so is tantamount to “praying” to them, and that this is wrong, because [so they claim] one can only pray to God.

They’re wrong. We can ask them to pray for us (which is what Catholics who know anything about their faith mean by “praying to saints”), and that is not prayer, if by prayer we mean (as Protestants believe) only that they grant our requests under their own power. No they don’t. They make powerful requests to God, Who then decides whether to grant our requests or not. They are intercessors to God, not the granters of the prayers.

That said, Catholics often use the phrase “pray[ing] to saints”: meaning “asking them to intercede.” St. Thomas Aquinas makes a very useful clarification:

Prayer is offered to a person in two ways: first, as to be fulfilled by him, secondly, as to be obtained through him. On the first way we offer prayer to God alone, since all our prayers ought to be directed to the acquisition of grace and glory, which God alone gives, according to Psalm 83:12, “The Lord will give grace and glory.” But in the second way we pray to the saints, whether angels or men, not that God may through them know our petitions, but that our prayers may be effective through their prayers and merits.” (Summa Theologica, Second Part of the Second Part, Question 83:4: “Should We Pray to God Alone?”)​
Dead people can't speak, or hear. They're dead. Waiting the resurrection. Then they will have a body, and be able to hear, and speak.
But over and above all that... Why? Why the need to ask someone in heaven to ask God for something on your behalf? Aren't the living able to do that? Or aren't they good enough? Not holy enough? Perhaps God's hearing is like mine, affected by old age and can only hear those next to Him? Or is it really simply that you don't trust God to hear you, but think He'll listen to someone else more worthy? Truth is, God hears you. He has promised that if you do His will, even more than your own father, He will give you what you need. Now corporate prayer in the church, that's another matter altogether.
 
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Taken

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You'll do anything and rationalize any way you can to prop up the KJV. It's an old, flawed translation.

It is not a matter of doing “anything” to choose the KJV over modern versions of Scripture.
You favor more modern Scriptural texts. I don’t. And I know why.
You favor the more modern according to you, BECAUSE you have declared Historical language DEAD.
I favor the Historical language BECAUSE it does not OMIT words and CHANGE the meaning of words.


In this current Secular fiasco....VACCINE has a Historical meaning, a Preventative. The word VACCINE has recently been Declared “Changed”, to “NOT mean Preventative”, but rather, “less painful WHEN you contract a Disease, the Vaccine does not Prevent”.
....a matter of turning a truth...prevention...into a lie...doesn’t prevent.

FYI, deer don't have horns, they have antlers.


That’s true. Poor analogy for the point of duel vs single.

Re-read my post about one hand. If I open a door with my hand, does that mean I don't have two hands? If an animal gores me with its horn, that doesn't mean it doesn't have two horns!!! I mean, really! Your eisegesis is tragic.

Your ignorance is noted.

Hebrew Text reference descriptions of very large, very strong, very swift animals with a single horn....In Hebrew it is called “re’em”...In Greek translations; rhinokeras, though Latin, “rhinoceros”, describing a very large, very strong, very swift animal with a very large single horn protruding from the nose area of the animal.

We can see modern animals we call “rhinoceros”...Large strong animals, having a Large single horn, that can move/run fast.

I am of the belief ancient men saw, contended with, very Large, strong, fast moving, Animals with a single Large horn protruding from their nose area.
I comprehend uni-means single, corn-references a protrusion, and that protrusion is a single horn.

If that bugs you...who cares? I don’t.

Text in Job is questioning men living among strong one horned animals, if men will harness and trust such a large strong beast for mans own benefit of animal labor.

I don’t know of any culture that has harnessed and used large one horned beasts strengths for mans labor. Men kill one horned beasts...not for FOOD, not for their SKIN, but FOR their impressive HORNS.

Job 39:
[9] Will the unicorn be willing to serve thee, or abide by thy crib?
[10] Canst thou bind the unicorn with his band in the furrow? or will he harrow the valleys after thee?
[11] Wilt thou trust him, because his strength is great? or wilt thou leave thy labour to him?
[12] Wilt thou believe him, that he will bring home thy seed, and gather it into thy barn?
 

Jim B

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It is not a matter of doing “anything” to choose the KJV over modern versions of Scripture.
You favor more modern Scriptural texts. I don’t. And I know why.
You favor the more modern according to you, BECAUSE you have declared Historical language DEAD.
I favor the Historical language BECAUSE it does not OMIT words and CHANGE the meaning of words.


In this current Secular fiasco....VACCINE has a Historical meaning, a Preventative. The word VACCINE has recently been Declared “Changed”, to “NOT mean Preventative”, but rather, “less painful WHEN you contract a Disease, the Vaccine does not Prevent”.
....a matter of turning a truth...prevention...into a lie...doesn’t prevent.



That’s true. Poor analogy for the point of duel vs single.



Your ignorance is noted.

Hebrew Text reference descriptions of very large, very strong, very swift animals with a single horn....In Hebrew it is called “re’em”...In Greek translations; rhinokeras, though Latin, “rhinoceros”, describing a very large, very strong, very swift animal with a very large single horn protruding from the nose area of the animal.

We can see modern animals we call “rhinoceros”...Large strong animals, having a Large single horn, that can move/run fast.

I am of the belief ancient men saw, contended with, very Large, strong, fast moving, Animals with a single Large horn protruding from their nose area.
I comprehend uni-means single, corn-references a protrusion, and that protrusion is a single horn.

If that bugs you...who cares? I don’t.

Text in Job is questioning men living among strong one horned animals, if men will harness and trust such a large strong beast for mans own benefit of animal labor.

I don’t know of any culture that has harnessed and used large one horned beasts strengths for mans labor. Men kill one horned beasts...not for FOOD, not for their SKIN, but FOR their impressive HORNS.

Job 39:
[9] Will the unicorn be willing to serve thee, or abide by thy crib?
[10] Canst thou bind the unicorn with his band in the furrow? or will he harrow the valleys after thee?
[11] Wilt thou trust him, because his strength is great? or wilt thou leave thy labour to him?
[12] Wilt thou believe him, that he will bring home thy seed, and gather it into thy barn?

I am done discussing this with you. The KJV is indeed written in a dead language; it is not spoken anywhere on earth. Simply because it's maintained in the KJV doesn't mean anything. Translation is communicating the thoughts and ideas from one language (or more) into another language. The main purpose is that the source language(s) should be understood. The KJV obscures the meanings of the ancient languages by translating them into a language that nobody on earth speaks, reads, writes any more (except in some churches). It's an old ruse! I cna't count how many times I've heard, "now what this means is...", translating the Englyshe on the fly.

The example of the one-horned ox is a prime example. Your misinterpretation is obvious, but you persist in justifying it through any means possible. Oxen have two horns. They always have and always will. But you persist in your "blindness" because the KJV says so (or atl least you think it does). It doesn't! Like so many others, you have a pre-formed idea and use the KJV to prove it.

God's message to humanity is perfectly clear and straight forward. When Jesus came as a rural man and spoke to thousands at a time, do you think that He spoke to them in some ancient language that didn't have a straight forward meaning? The KJV "speaks" in the opposite manner, yet you insist that it is God's word. Tragic!
 

Jim B

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Okay by me.

Deleted the rest of your post whereby you continued your discussion in a one sided manner.

Only I am correct and you're not. BTW, why do you communicate in modern English if the Englyshe of the early 17th Century is so precise?
 

Michiah-Imla

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why do you communicate in modern English if the Englyshe of the early 17th Century is so precise?

Interestingly, the following verse from the King James Bible is missing in nearly all modern translations and there are no archaic words or archaic expressions in it:

“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” (1 John 5:7 KJV)

So what’s your beef now? You’re missing out on inspired scripture that isn’t even in “the Englyshe of the early 17th Century”.
 

Jim B

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Interestingly, the following verse from the King James Bible is missing in nearly all modern translations and there are no archaic words or archaic expressions in it:

“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” (1 John 5:7 KJV)

So what’s your beef now? You’re missing out on inspired scripture that isn’t even in “the Englyshe of the early 17th Century”.

1 John 5:7 is present in all modern translations. What is missing is the additional words added: the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.

Here is the NET translator's note on that verse: Before τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ τὸ αἷμα (to pneuma kai to hudōr kai to haima, “the Spirit and the water and the blood”) at the beginning of v. 8, the Textus Receptus (TR) reads ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, ὁ πατήρ, ὁ λόγος, καὶ τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα, καὶ οὗτοι οἱ τρεῖς ἕν εἰσι. 5:8 καὶ τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες ἐν τῇ γῇ (“in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. 5:8 And there are three that testify on earth”). This reading, the infamous Comma Johanneum, has been known in the English-speaking world through the King James translation. However, the evidence—both external and internal—is decidedly against its authenticity. For a detailed discussion, see TCGNT 647-49. Our discussion will briefly address the external evidence. This longer reading is found only in ten late mss, four of which have the words in a marginal note. These mss range in date from the 10th century (221) to the 18th (2318). They include the following (with dates in parentheses) 221 (X), 177 (XI), 88 (XII), 429 (XIV), 629 (XIV), 636 (XV), 61 (ca.1520), 918 (XVI), 2473 (1634), and 2318 (XVIII). There are minor variations among these codices. The earliest ms, codex 221, includes the reading in a marginal note, added sometime after the original composition. The oldest ms with the Comma in its text is from the 14th century (629), but the wording here departs from all the other mss in several places. The next oldest mss on behalf of the Comma, 177 (11th century), 88 (12th), 429 (14th), and 636 (15th), also have the reading only as a marginal note (v.l.). Codex 177’s Comma is in a marginal note that must be dated after 1551, the year of the first Greek New Testament with verse numbers added. The remaining mss are from the 16th to 18th centuries. Thus, there is no sure evidence of this reading in any Greek ms until the 14th century (629), and that ms deviates from all others in its wording; the wording that matches what is found in the TR was apparently composed after Erasmus’ Greek NT was published in 1516. Indeed, the Comma appears in no Greek witness of any kind (either ms, patristic, or Greek translation of some other version) until a.d. 1215 (in a Greek translation of the Acts of the Lateran Council, a work originally written in Latin). This is all the more significant since many a Greek Father would have loved such a reading, for it so succinctly affirms the doctrine of the Trinity. The reading seems to have arisen in a fourth century Latin homily in which the text was allegorized to refer to members of the Trinity. From there, it made its way into copies of the Latin Vulgate, the text used by the Roman Catholic Church. The Trinitarian formula (the Comma Johanneum) found a place in the third edition of Erasmus’ Greek NT (1522) because of pressure from the Catholic Church. After his first edition appeared, there arose such a furor over the absence of the Comma that Erasmus needed to defend himself. He argued that he did not put in the Comma because he found no Greek mss that included it. Once one was produced (codex 61, written in ca. 1520), Erasmus apparently felt obliged to include the reading. He became aware of this ms sometime between May of 1520 and September of 1521. In his annotations to his third edition he does not protest the rendering now in his text, as though it were made to order, but he does defend himself from the charge of indolence, noting that he had taken care to find whatever mss he could for the production of his text. In the final analysis, Erasmus probably altered the text because of politico-theologico-economic concerns: He did not want his reputation ruined, nor his Novum Instrumentum to go unsold. Modern advocates of the TR and KJV generally argue for the inclusion of the Comma Johanneum on the basis of heretical motivation by scribes who did not include it. But these same scribes elsewhere include thoroughly orthodox readings—even in places where the TR/Byzantine mss lack them. Further, these advocates argue theologically from the position of divine preservation: Since this verse is in the TR, it must be original. (Of course, this approach is circular, presupposing as it does that the TR = the original text.) In reality, the issue is history, not heresy: How can one argue that the Comma Johanneum goes back to the original text yet does not appear until the 14th century in any Greek mss (and in a form significantly different from what is printed in the TR; the wording of the TR is not found in any Greek mss until the 16th century)? Such a stance does not do justice to the gospel: Faith must be rooted in history. Significantly, the German translation of Luther was based on Erasmus’ second edition (1519) and lacked the Comma. But the KJV translators, basing their work principally on Theodore Beza’s 10th edition of the Greek NT (1598), a work which itself was fundamentally based on Erasmus’ third and later editions (and Stephanus’ editions), popularized the Comma for the English-speaking world. Thus, the Comma Johanneum has been a battleground for English-speaking Christians more than for others. For a recent discussion of the Comma Johanneum, see Rodrigo Galiza and John W. Reeve, “The Johannine Comma (1 John 5:7–8): The Status of Its Textual History and Theological Usage in English, Greek, and Latin,” AUSS 56 (2018) 63–89.

Again, you are holding the wording of a single translation produced over 400 years ago to satisfy the demands of a secular king to justify his rule to be Scriptural truth. I prefer modern scholarship which is based on the best translation principles and using the best source documents. You will go to any length to justify your false basis of what is God's written word, but you're not impressing people the way that you think you are. You come across as someone with a closed mind, and I pity you for that.

The King James translation is NOT the word of God!!! It is a translation only and is clearly in error in a number of places.
 

marks

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This is the Abraham of the Bible — long dead by that time –, being asked to do something by a “rich man” (16:19, 22), traditionally known as Dives (which is simply a Latin word for “rich man”). His answer was, in effect, “no” (16:25-26). Having failed in that request, Dives prays to him again for something else:
Luke 16:27-28 And he said, ‘Then I beg you, father [KJV: “I pray thee therefore, father”], to send him to my father’s house, [28] for I have five brothers, so that he may warn them, lest they also come into this place of torment.’
This is a conversation that occurs in Sheol, the hidden realm of the dead, between those who are there.

This is not a prooftext approving necromancy as the living seek to communicate with the dead. And when the rich man pleads Abraham send one of the dead back to the living, his request is flatly denied.

All of this reveals to us that not only can dead saints hear our requests; they also have some measure of power to carry them out on their own (though no doubt by God’s power). Abraham is asked to “send” a dead man to appear to the rich man’s brothers, in order for them to avoid damnation.

Abraham doesn’t deny that he is able to potentially send Lazarus to do such a thing; he only denies that it would work (by the logic of “if they don’t respond to greater factor x, nor will they respond to lesser factor y”). Therefore, it is assumed in the story that Abraham had the ability and authority to do so on his own. And this is all taught, remember, by our Lord Jesus.

That's actually an argument from silence. Jesus in His story addresses the key fact, but that doesn't mean there are not other facts, but not as singularly relevant. Notice also Abraham's inability to even send one person across to the other side. How does that become Abraham having power over death, to give life? So I'd say it's a misleading assumption.

The fact that Dives is dead (in the story they are both in Hades or Sheol: the intermediate netherworld) is irrelevant to the argument at hand, since standard Protestant theology holds that no one should make such a request to anyone but God.

Is this to say we should disregard the teaching in Scripture that we pray directly to our God, and follow the misguided example of a sinner in hell? I should say not!

Protestant theology also generally teaches that we can’t talk to anyone who is dead, let alone make intercessory requests to them. Yet King Saul talked to the dead prophet Samuel (1 Sam 28:12-15), Moses and Elijah appeared at the Mount of Transfiguration (Mt 17:1-3), the “Two Witnesses” of Revelation (11:3-13) came back to life again (and talked to folks); so did those who rose after Jesus’ Resurrection (Mt 27:50-53), etc.

In each case (though we are not given this detail in Saul's story), God yes has raised the dead, and will do so again. He has the power over life and death, and He alone. That Moses and Elijah appeared with Jesus testifies the spirits of the righteous live. The Two Witnesses in the Revelation, we don't have a record of them speaking to anyone post resurrection, just the same, God has power to restore life, and sometimes He has done that.

Much love!
 

Taken

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Only I am correct and you're not.

Make yourself a Blue Ribbon, no body cares if you declared a language dead!

Three things you should have learned from Scripture.
History Repeats itself.
Men turn truths into lies.
Omitting and Changing the meaning of words, does not change history, only changes the truth.

If you know not what was a mans truth in history, you fall for what men have changed.

Ecc 1:
[9] The thing that hath been, it is that which shall be; and that which is done is that which shall be done: and there is no new thing under the sun.

Rom 1:
[25] Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.

BTW, why do you communicate in modern English if the Englyshe of the early 17th Century is so precise?

No need to dramatize my preference of the KJV to Mean “precise”.
The favoring of the KJV is per my choice and my reasons...which has nothing to do with your choices, preferences or reasonings.
I find your claim a language is dead, rather laughable.
I find your claiming your Opinion establishes my choices to automatically be rendered Wrong, rather laughable.

BTW do you or your children know the original meanings of:
Nice? Cool? Gay? Rainbow? Bad? Crap? Marriage? Hate? Vaccine?
 

Jim B

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Just a repeat of the school of textual criticism.

Garbage.

Your calling it garbage gives it validity in my opinion. Your closed mind is nothing to be proud of!

Here is an excellent description of textual criticism: the study of a literary work that aims to establish the original text.

So, what are you afraid of? Learning the truth about Scripture?
 

Jim B

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Make yourself a Blue Ribbon, no body cares if you declared a language dead!

Three things you should have learned from Scripture.
History Repeats itself.
Men turn truths into lies.
Omitting and Changing the meaning of words, does not change history, only changes the truth.

If you know not what was a mans truth in history, you fall for what men have changed.

Ecc 1:
[9] The thing that hath been, it is that which shall be; and that which is done is that which shall be done: and there is no new thing under the sun.

Rom 1:
[25] Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.



No need to dramatize my preference of the KJV to Mean “precise”.
The favoring of the KJV is per my choice and my reasons...which has nothing to do with your choices, preferences or reasonings.
I find your claim a language is dead, rather laughable.
I find your claiming your Opinion establishes my choices to automatically be rendered Wrong, rather laughable.

BTW do you or your children know the original meanings of:
Nice? Cool? Gay? Rainbow? Bad? Crap? Marriage? Hate? Vaccine?

If you think that I pay attention to your claims you are more delusional than I have thought so far.
 

Michiah-Imla

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the study of a literary work that aims to establish the original text

The Holy Bible is not a “literary work” and the text was established until the fathers of textual criticism (Westcott and Hort) subverted it with human reasonings and corrupted manuscripts in the late 1800’s.

A double whammy of error!
 

Jim B

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The Holy Bible is not a “literary work” and the text was established until the fathers of textual criticism (Westcott and Hort) subverted it with human reasonings and corrupted manuscripts in the late 1800’s.

A double whammy of error!

Oy vey!!! Is your mind really that closed? I feel so sorry for you!

If the Bible isn't a literary work (or more properly, a collection of literary works), what is it? A video game? A stage play? A movie?

a) Calling Westcott and Hort "subversive" is total nonsense.
b) Modern manuscripts are not based on Westcott and Hort.
c) What is wrong with human reasoning? (I would really like an answer to this. Is ignorance and/or a closed mind something to be desired?)
d) Since the first King James Bible rolled off the press in 1611 to the King James Bible you buy off the shelf today, there have been - are you ready - there have been a grand total of 421 word changes!

So, which one of the many variants of the King James Bible is the word of God???
 

Michiah-Imla

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If the Bible isn't a literary work (or more properly, a collection of literary works), what is it?

It is the word of God!

Calling it a “literary work” is equating it with secular writings.

What is wrong with human reasoning?

“Trust in the LORD with all thine heart; and lean not unto thine own understanding.” (Proverbs 3:5)

Peddlers of Textual Criticism depend on their reasoning, not faith.

There’s no discernment or concern how their works affect faith.